RN ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam (Version 1, 2, 3, 4) With Questions
And Revised Correct Answers & Rationales () 100%
Guaranteed Pass ||Complete A+ Guide
Question 1
A nurse is caring for a client with heart failure who reports sudden shortness of breath and
crackles in bilateral lung bases. Which action should the nurse take first?
A. Administer furosemide IV push
B. Place the client in high-Fowler's position
C. Apply oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal cannula
D. Check oxygen saturation
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: High-Fowler's position uses gravity to reduce venous return and decrease pulmonary
congestion. This is the priority before administering oxygen or medications. Airway
management comes first (ABCs), and positioning facilitates breathing immediately.
Question 2
A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client with a new prescription for warfarin. Which
statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
A. "I will use a soft toothbrush."
B. "I can take ibuprofen if I have a headache."
C. "I will avoid eating large amounts of spinach."
D. "I will report any dark, tarry stools to my provider."
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Ibuprofen increases bleeding risk by inhibiting platelet aggregation and can interact
with warfarin. Clients should use acetaminophen for pain. Soft toothbrush (A) prevents gum
bleeding; limit vitamin K foods (C) but not eliminate; dark stools (D) indicate GI bleeding.
,Question 3
A nurse is assessing a client who is 2 hours post-cesarean section. The fundus is boggy and
displaced to the right. What is the priority action?
A. Massage the fundus
B. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter
C. Administer oxytocin as prescribed
D. Notify the provider
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A boggy, displaced fundus often indicates a distended bladder pushing the uterus up
and to the side. The nurse should first have the client void or catheterize to empty the bladder,
then reassess fundal tone. Massaging without emptying the bladder is ineffective.
RN ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam – Practice Version 2
Question 4
A nurse is preparing to administer 1,000 mL of lactated Ringer's over 8 hours. The drop factor is
15 gtt/mL. How many gtt/min should the nurse administer? (Round to the nearest whole
number.)
Correct Answer: 31 gtt/min
Rationale: Formula: (Volume in mL × drop factor) ÷ time in minutes
= (1,000 × 15) ÷ (8 × 60)
= 15,000 ÷ 480 = 31.25 → 31 gtt/min
Question 5
A nurse is caring for a client with major depressive disorder who suddenly appears calm and
cheerful after weeks of withdrawal. What action should the nurse take?
A. Increase the client's privileges
B. Document the improvement in mood
C. Place the client on suicide precautions
D. Discontinue one-to-one observation
,Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A sudden mood improvement in a depressed client may indicate the client has made
a decision to commit suicide and feels relieved. This is a high-risk sign requiring immediate
suicide precautions.
Question 6
A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus is found unresponsive with cool, clammy skin and a blood
glucose of 48 mg/dL. Which action should the nurse take first?
A. Administer glucagon IM
B. Give 15 g of oral glucose
C. Start an IV of D50W
D. Recheck blood glucose in 15 minutes
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The client is unresponsive, so oral glucose is contraindicated. Glucagon IM (A) is the
first-line treatment when IV access is not immediately available. D50W (C) requires IV access
and is appropriate but not first if no IV.
RN ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam – Practice Version 3
Question 7
A nurse is teaching a client about digoxin. Which of the following should the client report to the
provider?
A. Heart rate of 68 bpm
B. Yellow-tinged vision
C. Mild nausea after meals
D. Weight gain of 1 lb in 2 days
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Yellow-tinged vision (xanthopsia) is a classic sign of digoxin toxicity. Other signs
include bradycardia, nausea, vomiting, and visual halos. HR 68 (A) is normal; mild nausea (C) can
occur but less specific; weight gain (D) may indicate heart failure worsening.
Question 8
, A nurse is assessing a client with cirrhosis who has asterixis. Which finding is most consistent
with this condition?
A. Flapping tremor of the hands when wrists are extended
B. Inability to stand with feet together and eyes closed
C. Shuffling gait and muscle rigidity
D. Loss of sensation in bilateral lower extremities
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Asterixis, or "liver flap," is a flapping tremor seen in hepatic encephalopathy. It's
elicited by asking the client to extend arms and dorsiflex wrists. The other options describe
different neurological conditions.
Question 9
A nurse is providing education to a client starting isoniazid for latent TB. Which supplement
should the nurse recommend?
A. Vitamin B6 (pyridoxine)
B. Vitamin C
C. Vitamin D
D. Calcium
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Isoniazid can cause peripheral neuropathy by interfering with vitamin B6
metabolism. Pyridoxine supplementation prevents this side effect.
RN ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam – Practice Version 4
Question 10
A nurse is caring for a client in active labor. The fetal heart rate shows late decelerations. What
is the priority nursing action?
A. Increase IV fluid rate
B. Position the client on her left side
C. Administer oxygen at 10 L/min via face mask
D. Notify the provider
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Late decelerations indicate uteroplacental insufficiency. The priority is to improve
And Revised Correct Answers & Rationales () 100%
Guaranteed Pass ||Complete A+ Guide
Question 1
A nurse is caring for a client with heart failure who reports sudden shortness of breath and
crackles in bilateral lung bases. Which action should the nurse take first?
A. Administer furosemide IV push
B. Place the client in high-Fowler's position
C. Apply oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal cannula
D. Check oxygen saturation
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: High-Fowler's position uses gravity to reduce venous return and decrease pulmonary
congestion. This is the priority before administering oxygen or medications. Airway
management comes first (ABCs), and positioning facilitates breathing immediately.
Question 2
A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client with a new prescription for warfarin. Which
statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
A. "I will use a soft toothbrush."
B. "I can take ibuprofen if I have a headache."
C. "I will avoid eating large amounts of spinach."
D. "I will report any dark, tarry stools to my provider."
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Ibuprofen increases bleeding risk by inhibiting platelet aggregation and can interact
with warfarin. Clients should use acetaminophen for pain. Soft toothbrush (A) prevents gum
bleeding; limit vitamin K foods (C) but not eliminate; dark stools (D) indicate GI bleeding.
,Question 3
A nurse is assessing a client who is 2 hours post-cesarean section. The fundus is boggy and
displaced to the right. What is the priority action?
A. Massage the fundus
B. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter
C. Administer oxytocin as prescribed
D. Notify the provider
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A boggy, displaced fundus often indicates a distended bladder pushing the uterus up
and to the side. The nurse should first have the client void or catheterize to empty the bladder,
then reassess fundal tone. Massaging without emptying the bladder is ineffective.
RN ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam – Practice Version 2
Question 4
A nurse is preparing to administer 1,000 mL of lactated Ringer's over 8 hours. The drop factor is
15 gtt/mL. How many gtt/min should the nurse administer? (Round to the nearest whole
number.)
Correct Answer: 31 gtt/min
Rationale: Formula: (Volume in mL × drop factor) ÷ time in minutes
= (1,000 × 15) ÷ (8 × 60)
= 15,000 ÷ 480 = 31.25 → 31 gtt/min
Question 5
A nurse is caring for a client with major depressive disorder who suddenly appears calm and
cheerful after weeks of withdrawal. What action should the nurse take?
A. Increase the client's privileges
B. Document the improvement in mood
C. Place the client on suicide precautions
D. Discontinue one-to-one observation
,Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A sudden mood improvement in a depressed client may indicate the client has made
a decision to commit suicide and feels relieved. This is a high-risk sign requiring immediate
suicide precautions.
Question 6
A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus is found unresponsive with cool, clammy skin and a blood
glucose of 48 mg/dL. Which action should the nurse take first?
A. Administer glucagon IM
B. Give 15 g of oral glucose
C. Start an IV of D50W
D. Recheck blood glucose in 15 minutes
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The client is unresponsive, so oral glucose is contraindicated. Glucagon IM (A) is the
first-line treatment when IV access is not immediately available. D50W (C) requires IV access
and is appropriate but not first if no IV.
RN ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam – Practice Version 3
Question 7
A nurse is teaching a client about digoxin. Which of the following should the client report to the
provider?
A. Heart rate of 68 bpm
B. Yellow-tinged vision
C. Mild nausea after meals
D. Weight gain of 1 lb in 2 days
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Yellow-tinged vision (xanthopsia) is a classic sign of digoxin toxicity. Other signs
include bradycardia, nausea, vomiting, and visual halos. HR 68 (A) is normal; mild nausea (C) can
occur but less specific; weight gain (D) may indicate heart failure worsening.
Question 8
, A nurse is assessing a client with cirrhosis who has asterixis. Which finding is most consistent
with this condition?
A. Flapping tremor of the hands when wrists are extended
B. Inability to stand with feet together and eyes closed
C. Shuffling gait and muscle rigidity
D. Loss of sensation in bilateral lower extremities
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Asterixis, or "liver flap," is a flapping tremor seen in hepatic encephalopathy. It's
elicited by asking the client to extend arms and dorsiflex wrists. The other options describe
different neurological conditions.
Question 9
A nurse is providing education to a client starting isoniazid for latent TB. Which supplement
should the nurse recommend?
A. Vitamin B6 (pyridoxine)
B. Vitamin C
C. Vitamin D
D. Calcium
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Isoniazid can cause peripheral neuropathy by interfering with vitamin B6
metabolism. Pyridoxine supplementation prevents this side effect.
RN ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam – Practice Version 4
Question 10
A nurse is caring for a client in active labor. The fetal heart rate shows late decelerations. What
is the priority nursing action?
A. Increase IV fluid rate
B. Position the client on her left side
C. Administer oxygen at 10 L/min via face mask
D. Notify the provider
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Late decelerations indicate uteroplacental insufficiency. The priority is to improve
