LATEST BKAT CRITICAL CARE NURSING EXAM
PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS (VERIFIED
ANSWERS) PLUS RATIONALES 2026 Q&A | INSTANT
DOWNLOAD PDF.
1. A patient with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) is placed on mechanical
ventilation. Which ventilator strategy is most appropriate to prevent ventilator-
induced lung injury?
A. High tidal volume ventilation (10–12 mL/kg)
B. Low tidal volume ventilation (4–6 mL/kg)
C. Zero PEEP strategy
D. High FiO₂ without PEEP
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Low tidal volume ventilation reduces alveolar overdistension and prevents
ventilator-induced lung injury. High tidal volumes worsen lung damage, while PEEP
is necessary to maintain alveolar recruitment.
2. Which hemodynamic parameter best reflects left ventricular preload?
A. Central venous pressure (CVP)
B. Pulmonary artery pressure (PAP)
C. Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure (PCWP)
D. Cardiac output (CO)
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: PCWP reflects left ventricular end-diastolic pressure and is the best
indicator of left ventricular preload. CVP reflects right-sided preload.
3. A patient in septic shock has a MAP of 55 mmHg despite fluid resuscitation. Which
medication is first-line?
A. Dopamine
B. Norepinephrine
C. Epinephrine
D. Vasopressin
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Norepinephrine is the first-line vasopressor in septic shock due to its
potent vasoconstrictive effects and improved survival outcomes.
4. Which arterial blood gas (ABG) result indicates respiratory acidosis?
A. pH 7.25, PaCO₂ 55 mmHg, HCO₃⁻ 24 mEq/L
B. pH 7.48, PaCO₂ 30 mmHg, HCO₃⁻ 22 mEq/L
C. pH 7.36, PaCO₂ 40 mmHg, HCO₃⁻ 24 mEq/L
, D. pH 7.30, PaCO₂ 35 mmHg, HCO₃⁻ 18 mEq/L
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Respiratory acidosis is characterized by low pH and elevated PaCO₂ due
to hypoventilation.
5. A patient develops sudden onset chest pain and dyspnea. Which finding is most
suggestive of pulmonary embolism?
A. Bradycardia
B. Decreased D-dimer
C. Hypoxemia with respiratory alkalosis
D. Hypercapnia with acidosis
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Pulmonary embolism often presents with hypoxemia and respiratory
alkalosis due to hyperventilation.
6. Which electrolyte imbalance is most likely to cause cardiac arrhythmias?
A. Hypernatremia
B. Hypokalemia
C. Hypercalcemia
D. Hypomagnesemia
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Hypokalemia disrupts cardiac electrical activity and increases the risk of
arrhythmias.
7. A patient with increased intracranial pressure (ICP) should be positioned:
A. Flat supine
B. Trendelenburg
C. Head elevated 30 degrees
D. Prone
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Elevating the head promotes venous drainage and reduces ICP.
8. Which drug is used to reduce intracranial pressure by osmotic diuresis?
A. Furosemide
B. Mannitol
C. Spironolactone
D. Hydrochlorothiazide
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic that draws fluid from brain tissue,
reducing ICP.
,9. What is the normal range for central venous pressure (CVP)?
A. 0–2 mmHg
B. 2–6 mmHg
C. 8–12 mmHg
D. 12–18 mmHg
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Normal CVP ranges from 2–6 mmHg, reflecting right atrial pressure.
10. A patient with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) will most likely present with:
A. Hypoglycemia
B. Metabolic alkalosis
C. Kussmaul respirations
D. Bradycardia
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Kussmaul respirations are deep, rapid breaths seen in metabolic acidosis
such as DKA.
11. Which condition is characterized by decreased cardiac output and increased systemic
vascular resistance?
A. Septic shock
B. Cardiogenic shock
C. Anaphylactic shock
D. Neurogenic shock
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Cardiogenic shock results in low cardiac output and compensatory
vasoconstriction.
12. Which lab value indicates acute kidney injury?
A. Creatinine 0.8 mg/dL
B. Creatinine 2.5 mg/dL
C. Sodium 140 mEq/L
D. Potassium 4.0 mEq/L
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Elevated creatinine indicates impaired renal function.
13. A patient is on heparin therapy. Which lab test is used to monitor its effectiveness?
A. INR
B. PT
C. aPTT
D. Platelet count
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: aPTT is used to monitor unfractionated heparin therapy.
, 14. Which ECG change is associated with hyperkalemia?
A. Flattened T waves
B. Peaked T waves
C. ST depression
D. Prolonged QT interval
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Hyperkalemia causes tall, peaked T waves on ECG.
15. A patient with COPD is at risk for which acid-base imbalance?
A. Respiratory alkalosis
B. Metabolic alkalosis
C. Respiratory acidosis
D. Metabolic acidosis
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: COPD leads to CO₂ retention, causing respiratory acidosis.
16. Which intervention is priority in a patient with tension pneumothorax?
A. Oxygen therapy
B. Needle decompression
C. Chest X-ray
D. IV fluids
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Needle decompression is a life-saving emergency intervention for tension
pneumothorax.
17. What is the normal cardiac output range?
A. 2–4 L/min
B. 4–8 L/min
C. 8–10 L/min
D. 10–12 L/min
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Normal cardiac output is 4–8 L/min in adults.
18. Which drug is used to treat bradycardia?
A. Atropine
B. Adenosine
C. Amiodarone
D. Lidocaine
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Atropine increases heart rate by blocking vagal stimulation.
PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS (VERIFIED
ANSWERS) PLUS RATIONALES 2026 Q&A | INSTANT
DOWNLOAD PDF.
1. A patient with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) is placed on mechanical
ventilation. Which ventilator strategy is most appropriate to prevent ventilator-
induced lung injury?
A. High tidal volume ventilation (10–12 mL/kg)
B. Low tidal volume ventilation (4–6 mL/kg)
C. Zero PEEP strategy
D. High FiO₂ without PEEP
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Low tidal volume ventilation reduces alveolar overdistension and prevents
ventilator-induced lung injury. High tidal volumes worsen lung damage, while PEEP
is necessary to maintain alveolar recruitment.
2. Which hemodynamic parameter best reflects left ventricular preload?
A. Central venous pressure (CVP)
B. Pulmonary artery pressure (PAP)
C. Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure (PCWP)
D. Cardiac output (CO)
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: PCWP reflects left ventricular end-diastolic pressure and is the best
indicator of left ventricular preload. CVP reflects right-sided preload.
3. A patient in septic shock has a MAP of 55 mmHg despite fluid resuscitation. Which
medication is first-line?
A. Dopamine
B. Norepinephrine
C. Epinephrine
D. Vasopressin
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Norepinephrine is the first-line vasopressor in septic shock due to its
potent vasoconstrictive effects and improved survival outcomes.
4. Which arterial blood gas (ABG) result indicates respiratory acidosis?
A. pH 7.25, PaCO₂ 55 mmHg, HCO₃⁻ 24 mEq/L
B. pH 7.48, PaCO₂ 30 mmHg, HCO₃⁻ 22 mEq/L
C. pH 7.36, PaCO₂ 40 mmHg, HCO₃⁻ 24 mEq/L
, D. pH 7.30, PaCO₂ 35 mmHg, HCO₃⁻ 18 mEq/L
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Respiratory acidosis is characterized by low pH and elevated PaCO₂ due
to hypoventilation.
5. A patient develops sudden onset chest pain and dyspnea. Which finding is most
suggestive of pulmonary embolism?
A. Bradycardia
B. Decreased D-dimer
C. Hypoxemia with respiratory alkalosis
D. Hypercapnia with acidosis
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Pulmonary embolism often presents with hypoxemia and respiratory
alkalosis due to hyperventilation.
6. Which electrolyte imbalance is most likely to cause cardiac arrhythmias?
A. Hypernatremia
B. Hypokalemia
C. Hypercalcemia
D. Hypomagnesemia
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Hypokalemia disrupts cardiac electrical activity and increases the risk of
arrhythmias.
7. A patient with increased intracranial pressure (ICP) should be positioned:
A. Flat supine
B. Trendelenburg
C. Head elevated 30 degrees
D. Prone
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Elevating the head promotes venous drainage and reduces ICP.
8. Which drug is used to reduce intracranial pressure by osmotic diuresis?
A. Furosemide
B. Mannitol
C. Spironolactone
D. Hydrochlorothiazide
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic that draws fluid from brain tissue,
reducing ICP.
,9. What is the normal range for central venous pressure (CVP)?
A. 0–2 mmHg
B. 2–6 mmHg
C. 8–12 mmHg
D. 12–18 mmHg
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Normal CVP ranges from 2–6 mmHg, reflecting right atrial pressure.
10. A patient with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) will most likely present with:
A. Hypoglycemia
B. Metabolic alkalosis
C. Kussmaul respirations
D. Bradycardia
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Kussmaul respirations are deep, rapid breaths seen in metabolic acidosis
such as DKA.
11. Which condition is characterized by decreased cardiac output and increased systemic
vascular resistance?
A. Septic shock
B. Cardiogenic shock
C. Anaphylactic shock
D. Neurogenic shock
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Cardiogenic shock results in low cardiac output and compensatory
vasoconstriction.
12. Which lab value indicates acute kidney injury?
A. Creatinine 0.8 mg/dL
B. Creatinine 2.5 mg/dL
C. Sodium 140 mEq/L
D. Potassium 4.0 mEq/L
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Elevated creatinine indicates impaired renal function.
13. A patient is on heparin therapy. Which lab test is used to monitor its effectiveness?
A. INR
B. PT
C. aPTT
D. Platelet count
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: aPTT is used to monitor unfractionated heparin therapy.
, 14. Which ECG change is associated with hyperkalemia?
A. Flattened T waves
B. Peaked T waves
C. ST depression
D. Prolonged QT interval
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Hyperkalemia causes tall, peaked T waves on ECG.
15. A patient with COPD is at risk for which acid-base imbalance?
A. Respiratory alkalosis
B. Metabolic alkalosis
C. Respiratory acidosis
D. Metabolic acidosis
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: COPD leads to CO₂ retention, causing respiratory acidosis.
16. Which intervention is priority in a patient with tension pneumothorax?
A. Oxygen therapy
B. Needle decompression
C. Chest X-ray
D. IV fluids
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Needle decompression is a life-saving emergency intervention for tension
pneumothorax.
17. What is the normal cardiac output range?
A. 2–4 L/min
B. 4–8 L/min
C. 8–10 L/min
D. 10–12 L/min
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Normal cardiac output is 4–8 L/min in adults.
18. Which drug is used to treat bradycardia?
A. Atropine
B. Adenosine
C. Amiodarone
D. Lidocaine
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Atropine increases heart rate by blocking vagal stimulation.
