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Comprehensive Integration of Pathophysiology, Pharmacology & Physical Assessment for
Nursing Practice
Understanding Disease Processes: Pathophysiology Deep Dive
Q1: A 68-year-old patient with chronic hypertension presents with left ventricular
hypertrophy on echocardiogram. This cellular adaptation is best described as:
A. A decrease in cell size due to disuse
B. An increase in cell size due to mechanical stress [CORRECT]
C. An increase in cell number due to hormonal stimulation
D. A change in cell type due to chronic irritation
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Hypertrophy is the increase in cell size (not number) in response to increased
workload or mechanical stress. In hypertension, the left ventricle must pump against
elevated systemic resistance, causing muscle fibers to enlarge. Atrophy is decrease in
size, hyperplasia is increase in cell number, and metaplasia is change in cell type.
Q2: During an ischemic event, a patient's myocardial cells demonstrate cell swelling,
loss of membrane integrity, and nuclear dissolution. These changes are characteristic
of:
A. Apoptosis (programmed cell death)
B. Coagulative necrosis [CORRECT]
,C. Caseous necrosis
D. Liquefactive necrosis
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Ischemic injury to the heart typically produces coagulative necrosis, where
cell architecture is preserved temporarily but nuclei disappear and cytoplasmic details
are lost. Apoptosis is programmed cell death without inflammation, caseous necrosis is
cheese-like and seen in TB, and liquefactive necrosis occurs in brain tissue and
abscesses.
Q3: A patient with a severe bacterial infection develops fever, tachycardia, and elevated
WBC. The initial vascular phase of acute inflammation is characterized by:
A. Vasoconstriction followed by permanent vessel occlusion
B. Transient vasoconstriction followed by vasodilation and increased vascular
permeability [CORRECT]
C. Immediate vasodilation without permeability changes
D. Vessel rupture and hemorrhage only
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The vascular phase begins with transient vasoconstriction (seconds),
followed by vasodilation (increased blood flow causing redness/heat) and increased
vascular permeability (allowing fluid/protein leakage). This sequence creates the
classic signs of acute inflammation. Permanent occlusion and immediate vasodilation
without permeability changes are incorrect.
Q4: A patient with chronic bronchitis has ongoing cough with mucus production for 3
months. The chemical mediator most responsible for bronchoconstriction and mucus
secretion in this chronic inflammatory condition is:
A. Histamine (primarily acute inflammation)
,B. Leukotrienes [CORRECT]
C. Complement C3a (primarily bacterial lysis)
D. Interleukin-1 (primarily fever induction)
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Leukotrienes (particularly LTC4, LTD4, LTE4) are potent mediators of
bronchoconstriction and mucus secretion in chronic respiratory inflammation. While
histamine is key in acute reactions, leukotrienes dominate chronic asthma and
bronchitis. Complement mediates bacterial lysis, and IL-1 primarily causes fever.
Q5: A post-surgical patient's wound shows granulation tissue formation with new
capillary loops and fibroblast proliferation. This healing phase is called:
A. Hemostasis (immediate post-injury)
B. Proliferative phase [CORRECT]
C. Maturation/remodeling phase
D. Inflammatory phase
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The proliferative phase (days 3-21) features granulation tissue formation,
angiogenesis (new capillaries), fibroblast collagen synthesis, and wound contraction.
Hemostasis occurs immediately, inflammation follows (days 1-4), and maturation can
last months to years. Granulation tissue is the hallmark of proliferation.
Q6: A patient with severe vomiting has the following ABG: pH 7.52, PaCO2 48 mmHg,
HCO3- 35 mEq/L. This acid-base disorder is:
A. Respiratory acidosis (pH low, CO2 high)
B. Metabolic alkalosis [CORRECT]
C. Respiratory alkalosis (pH high, CO2 low)
D. Metabolic acidosis (pH low, HCO3 low)
, Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Metabolic alkalosis presents with elevated pH (>7.45), elevated HCO3- (>26),
and compensatory PaCO2 elevation (hypoventilation). The vomiting caused HCl loss,
leading to metabolic alkalosis. Respiratory disorders primarily alter PaCO2, while
metabolic disorders alter HCO3-.
Q7: A patient with heart failure develops severe peripheral edema. The primary
mechanism involves:
A. Decreased hydrostatic pressure in capillaries
B. Increased hydrostatic pressure in capillaries due to venous congestion [CORRECT]
C. Decreased plasma oncotic pressure only
D. Increased lymphatic drainage
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Heart failure causes venous congestion, increasing hydrostatic pressure in
capillaries and forcing fluid into interstitial spaces (edema). While low oncotic pressure
(liver disease, malnutrition) can cause edema, the primary mechanism in heart failure is
elevated hydrostatic pressure from backward failure.
Q8: A child has cystic fibrosis. This autosomal recessive disorder involves a mutation in
the CFTR gene on chromosome 7. If both parents are carriers, what is the probability
their next child will have the disease?
A. 0% (impossible if parents are healthy)
B. 25% [CORRECT]
C. 50%
D. 75%
Correct Answer: B