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NSG 3280 Exam 2 Pathophysiology (2026/2027) | Wilkes University | 150 Q&A with Rationales | Immunity, Infectious Disease, Respiratory, Skin

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Complete NSG 3280 Exam 2 Study Guide – Pathophysiology – Wilkes University (2026/2027 Academic Year) This digital download is a comprehensive 150-question practice exam for NSG 3280 Pathophysiology – Exam 2 at Wilkes University. Designed for undergraduate and graduate nursing students mastering the pathophysiological basis of immunity, infectious diseases, respiratory disorders, and skin conditions. What's included: 150 multiple-choice questions with detailed rationales 5 organized sections covering all exam topics Answers with evidence-based rationales – learn the "why," not just the "what" Section 1: Immunity & Inflammation (Q1–35) Innate vs. adaptive immunity (active vs. passive, natural vs. artificial) First line of defense: skin and mucous membranes Cardinal signs of acute inflammation: rubor, tumor, calor, dolor (redness, swelling, heat, pain) Systemic inflammation: fever, tachycardia, leukocytosis Exudate types: serous (clear), purulent (pus – neutrophils, debris), fibrinous, hemorrhagic Wound healing phases: hemostasis → inflammatory → proliferative (fibroblasts, collagen) → remodeling Cells of immunity: T cells (mature in thymus), B cells (antibodies/humoral immunity), neutrophils (bacterial infections), macrophages Immunoglobulins: IgA (mucosal surfaces), IgE (type I hypersensitivity/anaphylaxis), IgM (fetal/newborn infection marker – does not cross placenta) Hypersensitivity types: Type I (IgE – anaphylaxis, bee sting), Type II (cytotoxic – hemolytic disease of newborn), Type III (immune complex – SLE), Type IV (delayed – poison ivy) Complement system: opsonization, MAC lysis of bacteria Apoptosis vs. necrosis: programmed cell death (no inflammation) vs. unregulated cell death (inflammation) Opportunistic infections: immunocompromise (HIV, recurrent yeast infections) Vaccines: active natural immunity (infection) vs. active artificial (vaccination) Section 2: Infectious Diseases (Q36–65) Chain of infection: infectious agent → reservoir → portal of exit → mode of transmission → portal of entry → susceptible host Transmission: direct/indirect contact (fomites – contaminated stethoscope), droplet, airborne (TB – droplet nuclei), vector-borne (malaria – Anopheles mosquito) Disease patterns: endemic (regional), epidemic, pandemic (SARS 2002) Stages of infection: incubation → prodromal (vague symptoms) → acute (specific symptoms) → convalescent → resolution Bacterial infections: pneumococcal pneumonia (rust-colored sputum), C. diff (contact precautions, soap and water), TB (airborne precautions, 6–9 months multi-drug therapy), bacterial meningitis (cloudy CSF, low glucose, high neutrophils) Viral infections: HSV-1 (cold sores – treat at tingling prodrome), HSV-2 (genital), VZV (chickenpox → shingles – dermatomal, painful vesicles), HIV (CD4 200 → PCP, Kaposi sarcoma), hepatitis C (penetration via IV drug use) Fungal infections: candidal vaginitis (post-antibiotics – flora disruption), tinea pedis (dermatophyte), tinea corporis Parasitic: scabies (burrows in finger webs/wrists), pediculosis corporis (body lice – wash bedding/clothing in hot water) Sepsis: elevated lactate (2 mmol/L) indicates tissue hypoxia; septic shock = distributive shock (vasodilation, increased permeability, hypotension despite fluids) DIC: simultaneous thrombosis and bleeding (consumption of clotting factors) Antibiotic resistance: complete full course of antibiotics Section 3: Respiratory Disorders (Q66–100) Asthma: reversible airway obstruction (bronchospasm, inflammation, mucus). Acute exacerbation: wheezing, dyspnea. Status asthmaticus → silent chest (pre-arrest). Peak flow: red zone 50% personal best → emergency. SABA (albuterol – rescue), ICS (controller – reduces inflammation, no immediate effect). PFTs: decreased FEV1/FVC ratio (0.70). COPD: emphysema ("pink puffer" – hyperventilation, barrel chest) vs. chronic bronchitis ("blue bloater" – productive cough ≥3 months/year ×2 years, cyanosis, obesity). Cor pulmonale: right heart failure from chronic pulmonary hypertension. Oxygen therapy target SpO2 88–92% (avoid suppressing hypoxic drive). ABG: chronic compensated respiratory acidosis (elevated PaCO2, near-normal pH). Pneumonia: pneumococcal (rust-colored sputum, lobar consolidation → bronchial breath sounds, egophony, dullness). Hypoxemia from V/Q mismatch and shunt (poorly responsive to oxygen). Pulmonary embolism: post-op (Virchow's triad), sudden dyspnea, pleuritic chest pain, hemoptysis. Gold standard diagnosis: CTPA. Massive PE → obstructive shock (hypotension, JVD, clear lungs). Pneumothorax: spontaneous (sudden sharp chest pain, dyspnea, decreased breath sounds). Tension pneumothorax → one-way valve, mediastinal shift, requires needle decompression. ARDS: non-cardiogenic pulmonary edema (increased capillary permeability), exudative phase (protein-rich edema), low tidal volume ventilation (4–6 mL/kg, permissive hypercapnia). TB: airborne precautions, N95 mask, 6–9 months multi-drug therapy Cystic fibrosis: CFTR defect → thick secretions Restrictive lung disease (pulmonary fibrosis): decreased lung volumes, normal/increased FEV1/FVC ratio Section 4: Skin Disorders (Q101–135) Shingles (herpes zoster): VZV reactivation – unilateral dermatomal, painful vesicles, preceded by tingling. Ophthalmic branch → assess vision (corneal ulceration risk). Contagious: can cause chickenpox in non-immune individuals. Psoriasis vulgaris: well-demarcated erythematous plaques with silvery scales on extensor surfaces (elbows, knees). Koebner phenomenon. Contact dermatitis: localized rash from irritant/allergen (laundry detergent) Atopic dermatitis (eczema): flexural areas, associated with asthma/hay fever. Management: fragrance-free moisturizers, avoid triggers. Seborrheic dermatitis: sebaceous gland areas (scalp, eyebrows, nasolabial folds) Malignant melanoma: highest mortality. ABCDE criteria (Asymmetry, Border irregularity, Color variation, Diameter 6mm, Evolution). Basal cell carcinoma: pearly, waxy nodule with telangiectasias. Squamous cell carcinoma: scaly, crusted plaque on sun-exposed areas. Burns: Rule of Nines – anterior trunk 18%, entire left arm 9%. Emergent phase: hypovolemic shock (fluid shift). Circumferential chest burns → escharotomy. Inhalation injury (carbonaceous sputum, singed nasal hairs) → airway priority. Pressure injuries: Stage 3 – full-thickness with visible subcutaneous fat. Deep tissue injury – maroon/purple intact skin. Venous stasis ulcers: medial malleolus, irregular borders, ruddy base, hemosiderin staining. Arterial ulcers: "punched-out," pale base. Cellulitis vs. erysipelas: erysipelas has sharply demarcated raised borders Urticaria: Type I hypersensitivity (IgE, histamine) Vitiligo: autoimmune destruction of melanocytes Rosacea triggers: spicy foods, alcohol, sun exposure Steven-Johnson syndrome: widespread blistering → fluid/electrolyte management (burn-like care) Isotretinoin (Accutane): highly teratogenic → two forms of contraception, pregnancy tests Section 5: Comprehensive Pathophysiology Integration (Q136–150) Sepsis progression: Infection → SIRS → Sepsis → Septic Shock → MODS ARDS: exudative phase – diffuse alveolar damage, protein-rich edema Lung cancer in smokers: squamous cell carcinoma most common Kaposi sarcoma: AIDS-defining (HHV-8, CD4 200, purple skin lesions) Curling's ulcer: stress ulcer after burns (ischemia + increased acid) Diabetes insipidus post-TBI: polyuria, dilute urine, hypernatremia (decreased ADH) Cushing's triad (increased ICP): hypertension, bradycardia, irregular respirations Guillain-Barré: ascending paralysis – priority = respiratory function Myasthenia gravis: Tensilon test – improvement in myasthenic crisis Optic neuritis in MS: acute painful monocular vision loss CKD Stage 4 (GFR 15–29): anemia (↓EPO), hyperphosphatemia, hypocalcemia Cirrhosis ascites: portal hypertension + hypoalbuminemia Acute pancreatitis: premature trypsin activation → autodigestion Why this guide works: 150 unique questions – comprehensive coverage of Exam 2 content Detailed rationales – understand pathophysiological mechanisms, not just memorize facts Clinically relevant – prepare for NCLEX and clinical practice Exam-ready – mirrors the difficulty and style of Wilkes University NSG 3280 Format: PDF (150 questions + answer key + rationales) Institution: Wilkes University Course: NSG 3280 – Pathophysiology Term: 2026/2027 Exam: 2 of 2 (Immunity, Infectious Disease, Respiratory, Skin) Instant download – study on any device or print for offline use.

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NSG 3280 EXAM 2 PATHOPHYSIOLOGY —
COMPLETE 150-QUESTION PRACTICE
EXAM Galen College of Nursing | 2026/2027 |
Questions with Answers & Rationales



SECTION 1: IMMUNITY & INFLAMMATION (Questions 1-35)
1. The nurse is administering a childhood vaccine to a pediatric client. The mother
asks the nurse why the child needs so many vaccinations. How should the nurse
respond?
A. "Immunization is an important means of inhibiting the spread of infection by
decreasing your child's susceptibility to the infection."
B. "Vaccines prevent all infections completely for life."
C. "The more vaccines a child gets, the stronger their immune system becomes
overall."
D. "Vaccines are mainly required for school paperwork."
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Vaccines induce active immunity and herd protection by reducing
susceptibility and transmission of specific pathogens .
2. The nurse is reviewing assessment documentation of a client's wound and notes
"purulent drainage." The nurse would interpret this as:
A. Exudate containing clear fluid only
B. Exudate containing white blood cells, protein, and tissue debris
C. Exudate consisting primarily of blood
D. Exudate with high fibrin content but no cells
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Purulent (suppurative) exudate is thick, cloudy, and often yellow/green
due to pus—primarily neutrophils, necrotic cells, and protein .

,3. A newborn has been lethargic and is not nursing well. Testing of cord blood
done at birth reveals the presence of IgM. How should the nurse interpret this
finding?
A. IgM is normally transferred from the mother in utero
B. The presence of IgM suggests the newborn has an infection
C. IgM indicates adequate maternal immunity
D. IgM indicates a normal newborn immune response to breast milk
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Maternal IgM does not cross the placenta. IgM in cord blood suggests
fetal/neonatal synthesis in response to in utero infection .
4. The nurse is caring for a client who has experienced hypovolemic shock
secondary to penetrating multiple trauma. When caring for the client
postoperatively, which of these factors does the nurse recognize places the client at
risk for poor wound healing?
A. Tissue hypoxia
B. Hyperglycemia only
C. Hypervolemia
D. Excessive protein intake
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Adequate oxygen is essential for collagen synthesis and bacterial
killing. Hypovolemia and shock reduce perfusion, causing tissue hypoxia and
delayed healing .
5. Stem cells in the bone marrow produce T lymphocytes or T cells and release
them into the vascular system. The T cells then migrate where to mature?
A. Spleen
B. Lymph nodes
C. Thymus
D. Liver
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: T cells mature in the thymus, where they undergo selection to ensure
appropriate antigen recognition and self-tolerance .

,6. A client who has a history of intravenous drug use is diagnosed with hepatitis C.
Which portal of entry likely led to the client's infection?
A. Inhalation
B. Ingestion
C. Penetration
D. Direct contact through intact skin
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Sharing needles bypasses skin barriers and introduces the virus directly
into the bloodstream—this is infection via penetration through disrupted skin .
7. The first physical line of defense in innate immunity is:
A. Neutrophils and macrophages
B. T and B lymphocytes
C. Skin and mucous membranes
D. Complement proteins
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Intact skin and mucosal surfaces provide mechanical and chemical
barriers (e.g., acidic pH, mucus, cilia) to prevent pathogen entry before cellular
immune responses are triggered .
8. Which description does the nurse recognize fits a client in the prodromal stage
of an infection?
A. Client has no symptoms but is infected
B. Client is experiencing vague symptoms of fatigue and low-grade fever
C. Client has maximum specific signs and symptoms of the illness
D. Client is recovering and symptoms are resolved
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The prodromal stage is characterized by nonspecific, mild symptoms
before the full-blown illness phase (e.g., low-grade fever, malaise) .
9. A client is being treated for a pressure injury and the care team has observed that
the wound is healing. Which activity will take place during the proliferative phase?
A. Hemostasis and clot formation
B. Fibroblasts secrete collagen to promote wound healing

, C. Wound contraction by myofibroblasts only
D. Scar remodeling and collagen reorganization
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: During the proliferative phase, fibroblasts produce collagen and
extracellular matrix, new capillaries grow, and granulation tissue fills the wound .
10. A client has developed a skin infection linked to receiving pedicures in a
commercial salon. Which term for the source of transmission will the nurse use
when explaining the source of the client's infection?
A. Vector-borne transmission
B. Transmission via fomites
C. Airborne transmission
D. Vertical transmission
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Fomites are inanimate objects (e.g., instruments, surfaces) that harbor
pathogens and transmit infection when contaminated .
11. A client underwent an open cholecystectomy 2 days ago, and the incision is
now in the proliferative phase of healing. What is the dominant cellular process
that characterizes this phase of the client's healing?
A. Neutrophil infiltration and clot formation
B. Collagen secretion by fibroblasts
C. Apoptosis of inflammatory cells
D. Scar tissue remodeling
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The hallmark of the proliferative phase is fibroblast migration and
collagen deposition to rebuild the tissue framework .
12. A client is brought to the physician's office with a raised, red macular rash on
the trunk and arms accompanied by a fever. A diagnosis of measles is made.
Which type of immunity does this disease process provide?
A. Active natural immunity
B. Passive natural immunity
C. Active artificial immunity
D. Passive artificial immunity

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