1
Exam 3 NSG 3850 notes with codes Complete All 75
Questions And Correct Detailed Answers |Already
Graded A+||Already Graded A+
Practice Questions with Rationales (Exam 3)
1. Nephrotic syndrome does NOT usually cause:
• A. Hyperlipidemia
• B. Proteinuria
• C. Hematuria
• D. Generalized edema
Answer: C
Rationale: Nephrotic syndrome is characterized by massive proteinuria,
hypoalbuminemia, edema, and hyperlipidemia. Hematuria is more common in nephritic
syndrome.
2. A person with acute pyelonephritis would most typically experience:
• A. Fever
• B. Oliguria
• C. Edema
• D. Hypertension
Answer: A
Rationale: Acute pyelonephritis presents with fever, flank pain, dysuria, and nausea.
Oliguria and edema are not typical.
3. The organism most commonly associated with acute pyelonephritis is:
• A. Streptococcus
• B. Escherichia coli
• C. Klebsiella
• D. Enterobacter
,2
Answer: B
Rationale: E. coli accounts for 80-90% of community-acquired pyelonephritis.
4. Which ABG finding indicates respiratory acidosis?
• A. pH 7.50, PaCO₂ 30
• B. pH 7.30, PaCO₂ 50
• C. pH 7.45, HCO₃ 30
• D. pH 7.40, PaCO₂ 40
Answer: B
Rationale: Respiratory acidosis = pH <7.35 with PaCO₂ >45.
5. A patient with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) should receive which therapy
FIRST?
• A. Insulin IV
• B. Potassium
• C. IV fluids
• D. Bicarbonate
Answer: C
Rationale: Rehydration with isotonic fluids is the priority to restore circulating volume
before insulin administration.
6. Which sign indicates hypoglycemia?
• A. Dry skin
• B. Polyuria
• C. Shakiness
• D. Fruity breath
Answer: C
Rationale: Hypoglycemia causes adrenergic symptoms: shakiness, diaphoresis,
palpitations. Fruity breath suggests DKA.
7. A patient on IV heparin therapy should be monitored using which
laboratory value?
• A. INR
• B. PT
• C. aPTT
,3
• D. Platelet count only
Answer: C
Rationale: aPTT monitors IV heparin effectiveness; target is 1.5-2.5 times control.
8. The most common type of renal stone is:
• A. Uric acid
• B. Calcium
• C. Struvite
• D. Cysteine
Answer: B
Rationale: Calcium stones (calcium oxalate or calcium phosphate) are the most
prevalent, accounting for ~80% of all stones.
9. A patient with stroke symptoms must receive tPA within what time
window?
• A. 1 hour
• B. 3–4.5 hours
• C. 12 hours
• D. 24 hours
Answer: B
Rationale: For acute ischemic stroke, IV alteplase (tPA) is most effective when given
within 3 hours, but can be used up to 4.5 hours after symptom onset.
10. Which patient should the nurse assess FIRST?
• A. Post-op pain 6/10
• B. New onset confusion
• C. Nausea
• D. Temperature 99°F
Answer: B
Rationale: Acute confusion may indicate a life-threatening condition (e.g., stroke,
hypoglycemia, infection). It should be prioritized over stable, non-urgent symptoms.
✅ Final Exam 3 Preparation Checklist
, 4
Topic Key Points to Review
Pyelonephritis (fever, flank pain, E. coli), nephrotic syndrome (proteinuria,
Renal
edema), glomerulonephritis (hematuria, RBC casts)
IBD (Crohn’s vs. ulcerative colitis), cholelithiasis (gallstones), hepatitis (viral
GI
types)
DKA management (fluids first), hypoglycemia (shakiness, diaphoresis), thyro
Endocrine
disorders, Cushing’s vs. Addison’s
Hematologic Anemia types, DVT/PE (heparin, warfarin), sickle cell crisis
Neurologic Stroke (tPA window), seizures (status epilepticus), meningitis signs
Cardiopulmonary Heart failure (left vs. right), COPD (SpO₂ target), pneumonia (antibiotics)
ICD-10 for nephrotic syndrome (N04.9), pyelonephritis (N10), cholelithiasis
Codes
(K80.20), stroke (I63.9)
Good luck on your NSG 3850 Exam 3 – you’ve got this!
11-150
We need to generate 140 additional questions (11-150) for NSG 3850 Exam 3, following
the format of the first 10. The user provided "Actual Exam 3 NSG 3850 notes with
codes" and then "11-150" – they want a continuation. We have the first 10 questions in
the assistant's previous response? Actually the previous assistant response started with
a blueprint and then 10 practice questions. The user now wants questions 11 through
150. So we need to create 140 new practice questions with rationales, covering the same
topics: Renal, GI, Endocrine, Hematologic, Neurologic, Cardiopulmonary, with ICD-10
codes mentioned. We'll produce a numbered list from 11 to 150, each with a question,
answer, and rationale. Keep them concise but informative. Use a variety of formats:
multiple choice, select all that apply, true/false. Ensure answers are correct based on
pathophysiology. Use common nursing knowledge. We'll generate them in batches.
Here are NSG 3850 Exam 3 practice questions 11–150, following the same format
as the first 10. Each question includes the correct answer and a detailed rationale. The
Exam 3 NSG 3850 notes with codes Complete All 75
Questions And Correct Detailed Answers |Already
Graded A+||Already Graded A+
Practice Questions with Rationales (Exam 3)
1. Nephrotic syndrome does NOT usually cause:
• A. Hyperlipidemia
• B. Proteinuria
• C. Hematuria
• D. Generalized edema
Answer: C
Rationale: Nephrotic syndrome is characterized by massive proteinuria,
hypoalbuminemia, edema, and hyperlipidemia. Hematuria is more common in nephritic
syndrome.
2. A person with acute pyelonephritis would most typically experience:
• A. Fever
• B. Oliguria
• C. Edema
• D. Hypertension
Answer: A
Rationale: Acute pyelonephritis presents with fever, flank pain, dysuria, and nausea.
Oliguria and edema are not typical.
3. The organism most commonly associated with acute pyelonephritis is:
• A. Streptococcus
• B. Escherichia coli
• C. Klebsiella
• D. Enterobacter
,2
Answer: B
Rationale: E. coli accounts for 80-90% of community-acquired pyelonephritis.
4. Which ABG finding indicates respiratory acidosis?
• A. pH 7.50, PaCO₂ 30
• B. pH 7.30, PaCO₂ 50
• C. pH 7.45, HCO₃ 30
• D. pH 7.40, PaCO₂ 40
Answer: B
Rationale: Respiratory acidosis = pH <7.35 with PaCO₂ >45.
5. A patient with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) should receive which therapy
FIRST?
• A. Insulin IV
• B. Potassium
• C. IV fluids
• D. Bicarbonate
Answer: C
Rationale: Rehydration with isotonic fluids is the priority to restore circulating volume
before insulin administration.
6. Which sign indicates hypoglycemia?
• A. Dry skin
• B. Polyuria
• C. Shakiness
• D. Fruity breath
Answer: C
Rationale: Hypoglycemia causes adrenergic symptoms: shakiness, diaphoresis,
palpitations. Fruity breath suggests DKA.
7. A patient on IV heparin therapy should be monitored using which
laboratory value?
• A. INR
• B. PT
• C. aPTT
,3
• D. Platelet count only
Answer: C
Rationale: aPTT monitors IV heparin effectiveness; target is 1.5-2.5 times control.
8. The most common type of renal stone is:
• A. Uric acid
• B. Calcium
• C. Struvite
• D. Cysteine
Answer: B
Rationale: Calcium stones (calcium oxalate or calcium phosphate) are the most
prevalent, accounting for ~80% of all stones.
9. A patient with stroke symptoms must receive tPA within what time
window?
• A. 1 hour
• B. 3–4.5 hours
• C. 12 hours
• D. 24 hours
Answer: B
Rationale: For acute ischemic stroke, IV alteplase (tPA) is most effective when given
within 3 hours, but can be used up to 4.5 hours after symptom onset.
10. Which patient should the nurse assess FIRST?
• A. Post-op pain 6/10
• B. New onset confusion
• C. Nausea
• D. Temperature 99°F
Answer: B
Rationale: Acute confusion may indicate a life-threatening condition (e.g., stroke,
hypoglycemia, infection). It should be prioritized over stable, non-urgent symptoms.
✅ Final Exam 3 Preparation Checklist
, 4
Topic Key Points to Review
Pyelonephritis (fever, flank pain, E. coli), nephrotic syndrome (proteinuria,
Renal
edema), glomerulonephritis (hematuria, RBC casts)
IBD (Crohn’s vs. ulcerative colitis), cholelithiasis (gallstones), hepatitis (viral
GI
types)
DKA management (fluids first), hypoglycemia (shakiness, diaphoresis), thyro
Endocrine
disorders, Cushing’s vs. Addison’s
Hematologic Anemia types, DVT/PE (heparin, warfarin), sickle cell crisis
Neurologic Stroke (tPA window), seizures (status epilepticus), meningitis signs
Cardiopulmonary Heart failure (left vs. right), COPD (SpO₂ target), pneumonia (antibiotics)
ICD-10 for nephrotic syndrome (N04.9), pyelonephritis (N10), cholelithiasis
Codes
(K80.20), stroke (I63.9)
Good luck on your NSG 3850 Exam 3 – you’ve got this!
11-150
We need to generate 140 additional questions (11-150) for NSG 3850 Exam 3, following
the format of the first 10. The user provided "Actual Exam 3 NSG 3850 notes with
codes" and then "11-150" – they want a continuation. We have the first 10 questions in
the assistant's previous response? Actually the previous assistant response started with
a blueprint and then 10 practice questions. The user now wants questions 11 through
150. So we need to create 140 new practice questions with rationales, covering the same
topics: Renal, GI, Endocrine, Hematologic, Neurologic, Cardiopulmonary, with ICD-10
codes mentioned. We'll produce a numbered list from 11 to 150, each with a question,
answer, and rationale. Keep them concise but informative. Use a variety of formats:
multiple choice, select all that apply, true/false. Ensure answers are correct based on
pathophysiology. Use common nursing knowledge. We'll generate them in batches.
Here are NSG 3850 Exam 3 practice questions 11–150, following the same format
as the first 10. Each question includes the correct answer and a detailed rationale. The
