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NURS 120 Introduction to Medical Surgical Nursing - Week 2 Quiz 2026 – WCU

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NURS 120 Introduction to Medical Surgical Nursing - Week 2 Quiz 2026 – WCU

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NURS 120 Introduction to Medical Surgical Nursing - Week 2 Quiz
2026 – WCU


1. A nurse is caring for a client who reports sharp, localized pain in the right
lower quadrant that started 4 hours ago. How should the nurse classify this type
of pain?

A. Acute pain

B. Chronic pain

C. Neuropathic pain

D. Psychogenic pain

Answer: A
Rationale: Acute pain is typically sudden in onset, linked to a specific event or injury, and
lasts for a short duration (less than 3 to 6 months).

2. In the preoperative phase, whose primary responsibility is it to obtain the
client’s informed consent for a surgical procedure?

A. The surgeon

B. The anesthesiologist

C. The circulating nurse

D. The charge nurse

Answer: A
Rationale: The surgeon is responsible for explaining the procedure, risks, and benefits to
the patient. The nurse’s role is typically to witness the signature and ensure the client
understands the information.

,3. A client is 2 hours postoperative following abdominal surgery. Which of the
following assessments is the nurse’s priority?

A. Checking the surgical dressing for drainage

B. Assessing the client’s airway patency

C. Measuring the client’s urine output

D. Monitoring the client’s pain level

Answer: B
Rationale: According to the ABC (Airway, Breathing, Circulation) framework, ensuring a
patent airway is always the highest priority in the immediate postoperative period.

4. The nurse is reviewing laboratory results for a client and notes a potassium
level of 2.8 mEq/L. Which of the following clinical manifestations should the
nurse expect?

A. Muscle weakness and cardiac arrhythmias

B. Positive Chvostek’s sign

C. Peaked T waves on EKG

D. Hyperactive bowel sounds

Answer: A
Rationale: Hypokalemia (low potassium) manifests as muscle weakness, leg cramps,
fatigue, and dangerous cardiac arrhythmias. Peaked T waves are associated with
hyperkalemia.

5. Which of the following describes the ethical principle of ‘Autonomy’ in
nursing practice?

A. The obligation to do good for others

B. The duty to do no harm to the client

C. The requirement to be fair and equal to all clients

D. The right of the client to make their own healthcare decisions

Answer: D

, Rationale: Autonomy refers to the client’s right to self-determination and making their
own choices regarding their medical care.

6. A nurse is teaching a client about the use of an incentive spirometer. What is
the primary purpose of this device?

A. To increase the client’s heart rate

B. To prevent postoperative atelectasis

C. To measure the client’s oxygen saturation

D. To deliver bronchodilator medication

Answer: B
Rationale: Incentive spirometry encourages deep breathing, which helps expand the lungs
and prevent atelectasis (collapsed alveoli) and pneumonia after surgery.

7. A client who is NPO before surgery complains of a dry mouth. Which action
should the nurse take?

A. Allow the client to take small sips of water

B. Perform oral hygiene with a damp sponge or swab

C. Provide the client with a hard candy

D. Tell the client that thirst is normal and cannot be treated

Answer: B
Rationale: When a patient is NPO, the nurse can provide oral care to moisten the mucous
membranes without the risk of aspiration or fluid intake.

8. The nurse is assessing a client for signs of fluid volume deficit. Which finding
is consistent with this diagnosis?

A. Distended neck veins

B. Pitting edema in the lower extremities

C. Bounding peripheral pulses

D. Poor skin turgor and tenting

Answer: D

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