ATI COMPREHENSIVE PN PREDICTOR |
2026/2027 TESTBANK | LATEST UPDATE FOR
GRADE A+
1. A charge nurse is assigning roommates for four clients. Which client should be
assigned to a private room?
A. A client with pneumonia receiving IV antibiotics
B. A client with Clostridium difficile diarrhea
C. A client with a fractured femur in Buck’s traction
D. A client with heart failure receiving furosemide
Correct answer: B
Rationale: C. difficile requires contact precautions to prevent spread to other clients. A
private room is indicated. Pneumonia (unless drug-resistant organism) typically does not
require a private room. Fractured femur and heart failure do not require isolation.
2. A nurse on a medical-surgical unit is preparing to delegate tasks to an LPN.
Which tasks should the nurse delegate to the LPN? (Select all that apply)
A. Administer a tube feeding to a client with a gastrostomy tube
B. Perform the initial admission assessment on a new client
C. Reinforce teaching on insulin self-administration
D. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter for a client with urinary retention
E. Develop a plan of care for a client with diabetes mellitus
Correct answers: A, C, D
Rationale: LPNs can administer enteral feedings, reinforce teaching, and insert urinary
catheters. Initial assessment and care plan development are RN responsibilities.
3. A client is being discharged with a prescription for warfarin. Which statement
by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
A. “I will take ibuprofen if I have a headache.”
,B. “I will eat the same amount of green vegetables each week.”
C. “I will report any bleeding gums to my provider.”
D. “I will have my blood checked regularly as ordered.”
Correct answer: A
Rationale: NSAIDs like ibuprofen increase bleeding risk with warfarin. Acetaminophen is
safer for pain. Consistent vitamin K intake (green vegetables) is recommended. Bleeding
gums and regular INR monitoring are appropriate.
4. A nurse is reviewing informed consent for a client scheduled for a colonoscopy.
Which action should the nurse take?
A. Witness the client signing the consent form
B. Explain the risks and benefits of the procedure
C. Determine if the client understands the procedure
D. Obtain the consent form from the client’s family member if the client is sedated
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The nurse witnesses the client’s signature on the consent form. Explaining
risks/benefits is the provider’s responsibility. The nurse may reinforce teaching but not
determine legal understanding. A sedated client cannot consent; consent must be obtained
before sedation.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for physical restraints.
Which action is appropriate?
A. Tie the restraint straps to the side rail of the bed
B. Remove the restraint every 4 hours for range of motion
C. Ensure two fingers can fit between the restraint and the client’s wrist
D. Apply the restraint tightly to prevent movement
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Two-finger check ensures restraint is not too tight, preventing circulation
impairment. Restraints must never be tied to side rails (risk of injury with bed movement).
They should be removed every 2 hours for ROM, not every 4 hours. Tight application can
cause skin breakdown and neurovascular injury.
6. A nurse is preparing to transfer a client to a long-term care facility. Which
information must be included in the handoff report?
A. The client’s marital status and living arrangements
B. The client’s most recent bowel movement
C. The client’s advance directive status
D. The client’s insurance provider information
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Advance directives (code status, living will, DNR) must follow the client to the
next facility. Handoff includes active orders, allergies, pending results, and code status.
Marital status, bowel movement details (unless clinically relevant), and insurance are not
mandatory for handoff.
7. A nurse is caring for a client who is being discharged but does not have a
support system at home. Which referral is most appropriate?
,A. Meals on Wheels
B. Hospice care
C. Physical therapy
D. Skilled nursing facility
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Meals on Wheels provides food delivery for homebound clients without support.
Hospice is for terminal illness. Physical therapy addresses mobility but not food insecurity.
Skilled nursing facility is for 24-hour skilled care, not simply lack of support.
8. A nurse manager is reviewing incident reports. Which situation requires
completion of an incident report?
A. A client refuses a scheduled medication
B. A client slips on a wet floor but is not injured
C. A client’s family member requests to see the medical record
D. A client complains of pain 30 minutes after pain medication
Correct answer: B
Rationale: An incident report is required for any unexpected occurrence (falls, medication
errors, equipment failure) even without injury. Refusing medication is a client right. Family
requesting records is handled via privacy protocols. Pain complaint is expected
post-medication.
9. A nurse is caring for a client who is confused and attempting to remove their IV
line. Which action should the nurse take first?
A. Apply wrist restraints
B. Request a prescription for a sedative
C. Assign a sitter to stay with the client
D. Use a mitten restraint on the client’s hands
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Least restrictive intervention first – a sitter. Restraints and sedatives are used
only after less restrictive measures fail.
10. A nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client who speaks a different
language. An interpreter is present. Which action should the nurse take?
A. Speak directly to the interpreter when explaining instructions
B. Use family members as interpreters whenever possible
C. Pause frequently to allow the interpreter to translate
D. Face the client and speak in short sentences
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Face the client, speak to the client (not the interpreter). Use certified interpreter
(not family). Short sentences, pause for interpretation.
11. A nurse is caring for a client who has a do-not-resuscitate (DNR) order. The
client becomes unresponsive and stops breathing. Which action should the nurse
take?
A. Begin chest compressions until the provider arrives
B. Call a code blue and begin rescue breathing
, C. Provide comfort measures and notify the provider
D. Administer epinephrine as per emergency protocol
Correct answer: C
Rationale: DNR means no resuscitation. Provide comfort, notify provider.
12. A nurse is preparing to discharge a client who has a new tracheostomy. Which
action demonstrates appropriate care coordination?
A. Scheduling a follow-up appointment with the primary care provider before discharge
B. Teaching the client’s family how to suction the tracheostomy
C. Arranging for home health services for tracheostomy care
D. All of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: All actions demonstrate care coordination: follow-up, teaching, home health
referral.
13. A nurse is caring for a client on contact precautions for MRSA. Which action is
correct?
A. Wear an N95 respirator when entering the room
B. Remove gloves and then remove the gown when exiting
C. Place the client in a negative pressure room
D. Wear a gown and gloves for all client contact
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Contact precautions require gown and gloves. MRSA does not require N95 or
negative pressure (airborne). Remove gown first, then gloves.
14. A nurse is preparing to administer an enema to an adult client. In which order
should the nurse perform these steps? (Ordered response)
1. Insert the tubing 7-10 cm into the rectum
2. Lubricate the tip of the enema tubing
3. Position the client in Sims’ position
4. Hang the enema container 45 cm above the anus
A. 3, 2, 4, 1
B. 2, 3, 1, 4
C. 4, 2, 3, 1
D. 1, 3, 2, 4
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Order: Sims’ position → lubricate → hang container → insert tubing.
15. A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for wrist restraints. How
often should the nurse remove the restraints to assess skin integrity and provide
range of motion?
A. Every 30 minutes
B. Every 2 hours
C. Every 4 hours
D. Every shift
2026/2027 TESTBANK | LATEST UPDATE FOR
GRADE A+
1. A charge nurse is assigning roommates for four clients. Which client should be
assigned to a private room?
A. A client with pneumonia receiving IV antibiotics
B. A client with Clostridium difficile diarrhea
C. A client with a fractured femur in Buck’s traction
D. A client with heart failure receiving furosemide
Correct answer: B
Rationale: C. difficile requires contact precautions to prevent spread to other clients. A
private room is indicated. Pneumonia (unless drug-resistant organism) typically does not
require a private room. Fractured femur and heart failure do not require isolation.
2. A nurse on a medical-surgical unit is preparing to delegate tasks to an LPN.
Which tasks should the nurse delegate to the LPN? (Select all that apply)
A. Administer a tube feeding to a client with a gastrostomy tube
B. Perform the initial admission assessment on a new client
C. Reinforce teaching on insulin self-administration
D. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter for a client with urinary retention
E. Develop a plan of care for a client with diabetes mellitus
Correct answers: A, C, D
Rationale: LPNs can administer enteral feedings, reinforce teaching, and insert urinary
catheters. Initial assessment and care plan development are RN responsibilities.
3. A client is being discharged with a prescription for warfarin. Which statement
by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
A. “I will take ibuprofen if I have a headache.”
,B. “I will eat the same amount of green vegetables each week.”
C. “I will report any bleeding gums to my provider.”
D. “I will have my blood checked regularly as ordered.”
Correct answer: A
Rationale: NSAIDs like ibuprofen increase bleeding risk with warfarin. Acetaminophen is
safer for pain. Consistent vitamin K intake (green vegetables) is recommended. Bleeding
gums and regular INR monitoring are appropriate.
4. A nurse is reviewing informed consent for a client scheduled for a colonoscopy.
Which action should the nurse take?
A. Witness the client signing the consent form
B. Explain the risks and benefits of the procedure
C. Determine if the client understands the procedure
D. Obtain the consent form from the client’s family member if the client is sedated
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The nurse witnesses the client’s signature on the consent form. Explaining
risks/benefits is the provider’s responsibility. The nurse may reinforce teaching but not
determine legal understanding. A sedated client cannot consent; consent must be obtained
before sedation.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for physical restraints.
Which action is appropriate?
A. Tie the restraint straps to the side rail of the bed
B. Remove the restraint every 4 hours for range of motion
C. Ensure two fingers can fit between the restraint and the client’s wrist
D. Apply the restraint tightly to prevent movement
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Two-finger check ensures restraint is not too tight, preventing circulation
impairment. Restraints must never be tied to side rails (risk of injury with bed movement).
They should be removed every 2 hours for ROM, not every 4 hours. Tight application can
cause skin breakdown and neurovascular injury.
6. A nurse is preparing to transfer a client to a long-term care facility. Which
information must be included in the handoff report?
A. The client’s marital status and living arrangements
B. The client’s most recent bowel movement
C. The client’s advance directive status
D. The client’s insurance provider information
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Advance directives (code status, living will, DNR) must follow the client to the
next facility. Handoff includes active orders, allergies, pending results, and code status.
Marital status, bowel movement details (unless clinically relevant), and insurance are not
mandatory for handoff.
7. A nurse is caring for a client who is being discharged but does not have a
support system at home. Which referral is most appropriate?
,A. Meals on Wheels
B. Hospice care
C. Physical therapy
D. Skilled nursing facility
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Meals on Wheels provides food delivery for homebound clients without support.
Hospice is for terminal illness. Physical therapy addresses mobility but not food insecurity.
Skilled nursing facility is for 24-hour skilled care, not simply lack of support.
8. A nurse manager is reviewing incident reports. Which situation requires
completion of an incident report?
A. A client refuses a scheduled medication
B. A client slips on a wet floor but is not injured
C. A client’s family member requests to see the medical record
D. A client complains of pain 30 minutes after pain medication
Correct answer: B
Rationale: An incident report is required for any unexpected occurrence (falls, medication
errors, equipment failure) even without injury. Refusing medication is a client right. Family
requesting records is handled via privacy protocols. Pain complaint is expected
post-medication.
9. A nurse is caring for a client who is confused and attempting to remove their IV
line. Which action should the nurse take first?
A. Apply wrist restraints
B. Request a prescription for a sedative
C. Assign a sitter to stay with the client
D. Use a mitten restraint on the client’s hands
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Least restrictive intervention first – a sitter. Restraints and sedatives are used
only after less restrictive measures fail.
10. A nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client who speaks a different
language. An interpreter is present. Which action should the nurse take?
A. Speak directly to the interpreter when explaining instructions
B. Use family members as interpreters whenever possible
C. Pause frequently to allow the interpreter to translate
D. Face the client and speak in short sentences
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Face the client, speak to the client (not the interpreter). Use certified interpreter
(not family). Short sentences, pause for interpretation.
11. A nurse is caring for a client who has a do-not-resuscitate (DNR) order. The
client becomes unresponsive and stops breathing. Which action should the nurse
take?
A. Begin chest compressions until the provider arrives
B. Call a code blue and begin rescue breathing
, C. Provide comfort measures and notify the provider
D. Administer epinephrine as per emergency protocol
Correct answer: C
Rationale: DNR means no resuscitation. Provide comfort, notify provider.
12. A nurse is preparing to discharge a client who has a new tracheostomy. Which
action demonstrates appropriate care coordination?
A. Scheduling a follow-up appointment with the primary care provider before discharge
B. Teaching the client’s family how to suction the tracheostomy
C. Arranging for home health services for tracheostomy care
D. All of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: All actions demonstrate care coordination: follow-up, teaching, home health
referral.
13. A nurse is caring for a client on contact precautions for MRSA. Which action is
correct?
A. Wear an N95 respirator when entering the room
B. Remove gloves and then remove the gown when exiting
C. Place the client in a negative pressure room
D. Wear a gown and gloves for all client contact
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Contact precautions require gown and gloves. MRSA does not require N95 or
negative pressure (airborne). Remove gown first, then gloves.
14. A nurse is preparing to administer an enema to an adult client. In which order
should the nurse perform these steps? (Ordered response)
1. Insert the tubing 7-10 cm into the rectum
2. Lubricate the tip of the enema tubing
3. Position the client in Sims’ position
4. Hang the enema container 45 cm above the anus
A. 3, 2, 4, 1
B. 2, 3, 1, 4
C. 4, 2, 3, 1
D. 1, 3, 2, 4
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Order: Sims’ position → lubricate → hang container → insert tubing.
15. A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for wrist restraints. How
often should the nurse remove the restraints to assess skin integrity and provide
range of motion?
A. Every 30 minutes
B. Every 2 hours
C. Every 4 hours
D. Every shift
