LEIK FNP Practice Questions |
FNP Certification Exam Prep
with Answers & Rationales |
Graded A+
Updated 2026 Questions and Answers
100% Verified Exam Prep and Comprehensive Rationales
Included
,A 72-year-old woman has been on hydrochlorothiazide B) It inhibits the effect of renal prostaglandins and blunts the effectiveness of the
12.5 mg for many years to control her Stage II diuretic.
hypertension. Her blood pressure (BP) at this visit is
168/96. She is currently complaining of pain on her right NSAIDs and ASA inhibit the vasodilatory effects of prostaglandins, which
hip and on both knees. She has increased her dose of predisposes the kidney to ischemia. NSAIDs and diuretics can cause acute prerenal
ibuprofen (Motrin) from 400 mg 3 times day (TID) to 800 failure by decreasing renal blood flow.
mg TID. She is still in pain and would like something
stronger. Which of the following statements is the best
explanation of the effects of ibuprofen (Motrin) on her
disease?
A) It increases the chances of adverse effects to her health
B) It inhibits the effect of renal prostaglandins and blunts
the effectiveness of the diuretic
C) It prolongs the therapeutic effects of
hydrochlorothiazide and other diuretics
D) None of the statements are true
2. All of the following are infections that affect mostly the D) Chlamydia trachomatis
labia and vagina except:
Infections that commonly affect the labia and vagina include bacterial vaginosis,
A) Bacterialvaginosis candidiasis, and trichomoniasis. Chlamydia trachomatis commonly affects the
B) Candidiasis cervix, endometrial lining , fallopian tubes, and pelvic cavity.
C) Trichomoniasis
D) Chlamydia trachomatis
The nurse practitioner would test the obturator and B) Acute appendicitis.
iliopsoas muscle to evaluate for:
Signs and symptoms of an acute abdomen include invol- untary guarding, rebound
A) Cholecystitis tenderness, boardlike abdomen, and a positive obtu- rator and psoas sign. A
B) Acute appendicitis positive obturator sign occurs when pain is elicted by internal rotation of the right hip
C) Inguinal hernia from 90 degrees hip/knee flexion. The psoas sign is positive when pain occurs with
D) Gastriculcer passive extension of the thigh while the patient is lying on his/her side with knees
extended, or when pain occurs with active flexion of his/her thigh at the hip.
Treatment for mild preeclampsia includes all of the D) A prescription of methyldopa (Aldomet) to control blood pressure
following except:
Recommended care for women diagnosed with preeclampsia includes bed rest with
A) Bed rest except for bathroom privileges bath- room privileges, weight and BP monitoring, and closely following urine protein
B) Close monitoring of weight and blood pressure and serum protein, creatinine, and platelet counts. Oral medications are not used as
C) Close follow-up of urinary protein, serum creatinine, and first-line treatment.
platelet count
D) A prescription of methyldopa (Aldomet) to control blood
pressure
All of the following services are covered under Medicare C) Nursing home care
Part A except:
Medicare A coverage includes inpatient hospitalization and skilled care given in a
A) Inpatienthospitalizations certified skilled nursing facility. Most nursing home care is custodial care (help with
B) Medicines administered to a patient while hospitalized bathing, dressing, using a bathroom, and eating). This care is not covered by
C) Nursing home care Medicare A.
D) Surgeons
A 28-year-old student is seen in the school health clinic B) Mycoplasma pneumonia
with complaints of a hacking cough that is productive of
small amounts of sputum and a runny nose. He does not Mycoplasma pneumonia is the organism most com- monly seen in children and
take any medications, denies any allergies, and has no young adults. It is easily spread from droplets, from sneezing and coughing, in close
significant medical history. Physical examination reveals a proximity. Diagnosis is based on symptoms and x-ray results of infiltrates in lower
low-grade temperature of 99.9 degrees Fahrenheit, lobes.
respirations of 16/min, a pulse of 90 beats per minute, and
diffuse fine crackles in the base of the lungs. A chest
radiograph (x-ray) shows diffuse infiltrates on the lower
lobe of the right lung. The total white blood cell count is
10,500/uL. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Streptococcal pneumonia
B) Mycoplasma pneumonia
C) Acute bronchitis
D) Legionnaires disease
,A 39-year-old migrant worker presents to the clinic 2.5 C) 10 mm
days after a purified protein derivative (PPD) test. What
minimum size of induration would be considered posi- tive The PPD is administered on the volar aspect of the lower arm and read 48 hours
for this patient? after the test is given. The PPD result must have induration and measure 10 mm or
greater to be positive in a low-risk patient. Induration (firmness with palpation) must
A) 3 mm B) 5 mm C) 10 mm D) 15 mm be present. If the site has erythema but no induration, result would be negative.
Color is not important.
All of the following are correct statements regarding the D) The patient's spouse has a right to override the agent's decisions
role of the person named in a durable power of attorney
except: The person named in a durable power of attorney (the agent) is designated by the
patient to make all medical decisions, as well as any decisions regarding the
A) The agent's decisions are legally binding patient's private affairs in the event that the patient becomes incompetent and
B) The agent can make decisions in other areas of the unable to make his/her own decisions. No one has the ability to override the agent's
patient's life such as financial decision.
issues
C) The agent can decide for the patient who is on life
support when that life support
can be terminated
D) The patient's spouse has a right to override the agent's
decisions
All of the following are true statements regarding B) The patient has a medical illness that causes an anxiety reaction and denial
Munchausen syndrome except:
Munchausen syndrome is a psychiatric disorder in which the patient fakes a medical
A) It is considered a mental illness illness or disorder to gain attention from health care provid- ers. These patients
B) The patient has a medical illness that causes an anxiety commonly use the emergency department frequently to gain attention.
reaction and denial
C) The patient fakes an illness in order to gain attention
from health care providers
D) The patient has an inconsistent medical history along
with a past history of
frequent hospitalizations
Which of the following antihypertensive medications should C) Beta-blockers
the nurse practitioner avoid when treating patients with
emphysema? Beta-blockers should be avoided in patients with a history of emphysema. Studies
have shown evidence of a reduction in forced expiratory volume in 1 second
A) Calcium channel blockers (FEV1), increased airway hyperresponsiveness, and inhibition of bronchodilator
B) Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors response to beta agonists in patients receiving non-selective beta- blockers and
C) Beta-blockers high doses of cardioselective beta-blockers.
D) Diuretics
A 30-year-old chef complains of pruritic hives over her A) Perform a complete and thorough history
chest and arms but denies difficulty swallowing or
breathing. She reports a family history of allergic rhinitis Prior to prescribing medications, a complete and thorough history must be
and asthma. Which of the following interventions is most performed to determine possible causes of hives. The patient denied difficulty with
appropriate? swallowing and breathing, so there was no medical emergency to require calling
911.
A) Perform a complete and thorough history
B) Prescribe an oral antihistamine such as
diphenhydramine 25 mg PO QID
C) Give an injection of epinephrine 1:1000 intramuscularly
stat
D) Call 911
Which of the following findings is most likely in young B) Edema of the face and the upper extremities
primigravidas with pregnancy-induced hypertension?
Common signs and symptoms of pregnancy-induced hypertension include edema
A) Abdominal cramping and constipation of the face and the upper extremities, weight gain, blurred vision, elevated BP,
B) Edema of the face and the upper extremities proteinuria, and headaches.
C) Shortness of breath
D) Dysuria and frequency
Which of the following symptoms is associated with B12 D) Tingling and numbness of both feet
deficiency anemia?
Vitamin B12 deficiency anemia can cause nerve cell damage if not treated.
A) Spoon-shaped nails and pica Symptoms of B12 deficiency anemia may include tingling or numbness in fingers
B) An abnormal neurological exam and toes, difficulty walking, mood changes or depression, memory loss,
C) A vegan diet disorientation, and dementia.
D) Tingling and numbness of both feet
, A second triple screen on a 35-year-old primigravida A) Order an ultrasound
reveals abnormally low lev- els of the alpha fetoprotein and
estriol and high levels of human chorionic gonad- otropin. Abnormally low levels of alpha fetoprotein and estriol and high levels of human
Which of the following interventions is the best choice for chorionic gonadotropin are abnormal during pregnancy. An ultrasound should be
this patient? ordered to further evaluate the fetus for characteristics of Down syndrome and/or
fetal demise.
A) Order an ultrasound
B) Order a computed tomography (CT) scan of the
abdomen
C) Order a 24-hour urine for protein clearance
D) Assess for a history of illicit drug or alcohol use
All of the following are true statements about diverticula C) Most diverticula in the colon are infected with gram-negative bacte-
except: ria
A) Diverticula are located in the colon Diverticuli in the colon can be infected with both gram-negative and gram- positive
B) A low-fiber diet is associated with the condition bacteria.
C) Most diverticula in the colon are infected with gram-
negative bacteria
D)
Supplementingwithfibersuchaspsyllium(Metamucil)isrecom
mended
Patients who are diagnosed with gonorrhea should also be B) Chlamydia trachomatis
treated for which of the following infections?
When diagnosed with gonorrhea, the patient should also be treated for Chlamydia
A) Chancroid trachomatis.
B) Chlamydia trachomatis
C) Herpes genitalis
D) PID (pelvic inflammatory disease)
Kyphosis is a late sign of: C) Osteoporosis
A) Old age Kyphosis is a curvature of the spine that causes a rounding of the back, which leads
B) Osteopenia to a slouching posture. Severe thinning of the bones (osteoporosis) contributes to
C) Osteoporosis this curvature in the spine. Symptoms that may occur with severe cases of kyphosis
D) Osteoarthritis include difficulty breathing, fatigue, and back pain.
A 35-year-old primigravida who is at 28 weeks of gestation B) Higher than normal
is expecting twins. What would you would expect her alpha
fetoprotein (AFP) values to be? Alpha fetoprotein is produced in the fetal and maternal liver. Higher levels of alpha
fetoprotein are commonly seen in multiple gestations due to the growing fetuses
A) Normal and enlargement of the livers.
B) Higher than normal
C) Lower than normal
D) None of the above
Which of the following antihypertensive medications has A) Calcium channel blocker
beneficial effects for an elderly White female with
osteoporosis? Calcium channel blockers act by blocking the cal- cium channels in the heart
muscle and the blood vessels, thereby keeping more calcium in the bones.
A) Calcium channel blocker
B) Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor
C) Beta-blocker
D) Diuretic
The Lachman maneuver is used to detect which of the A) Knee instability
following?
The Lachman maneuver is a test performed to assess for knee instability. Knee
A) Knee instability instability indicates a tear of the anterior cruciate ligament.
B) Nerve damage of the knee due to past knee injuries
C) The integrity of the patellar tendon
D) Tears on the meniscus of the knee
FNP Certification Exam Prep
with Answers & Rationales |
Graded A+
Updated 2026 Questions and Answers
100% Verified Exam Prep and Comprehensive Rationales
Included
,A 72-year-old woman has been on hydrochlorothiazide B) It inhibits the effect of renal prostaglandins and blunts the effectiveness of the
12.5 mg for many years to control her Stage II diuretic.
hypertension. Her blood pressure (BP) at this visit is
168/96. She is currently complaining of pain on her right NSAIDs and ASA inhibit the vasodilatory effects of prostaglandins, which
hip and on both knees. She has increased her dose of predisposes the kidney to ischemia. NSAIDs and diuretics can cause acute prerenal
ibuprofen (Motrin) from 400 mg 3 times day (TID) to 800 failure by decreasing renal blood flow.
mg TID. She is still in pain and would like something
stronger. Which of the following statements is the best
explanation of the effects of ibuprofen (Motrin) on her
disease?
A) It increases the chances of adverse effects to her health
B) It inhibits the effect of renal prostaglandins and blunts
the effectiveness of the diuretic
C) It prolongs the therapeutic effects of
hydrochlorothiazide and other diuretics
D) None of the statements are true
2. All of the following are infections that affect mostly the D) Chlamydia trachomatis
labia and vagina except:
Infections that commonly affect the labia and vagina include bacterial vaginosis,
A) Bacterialvaginosis candidiasis, and trichomoniasis. Chlamydia trachomatis commonly affects the
B) Candidiasis cervix, endometrial lining , fallopian tubes, and pelvic cavity.
C) Trichomoniasis
D) Chlamydia trachomatis
The nurse practitioner would test the obturator and B) Acute appendicitis.
iliopsoas muscle to evaluate for:
Signs and symptoms of an acute abdomen include invol- untary guarding, rebound
A) Cholecystitis tenderness, boardlike abdomen, and a positive obtu- rator and psoas sign. A
B) Acute appendicitis positive obturator sign occurs when pain is elicted by internal rotation of the right hip
C) Inguinal hernia from 90 degrees hip/knee flexion. The psoas sign is positive when pain occurs with
D) Gastriculcer passive extension of the thigh while the patient is lying on his/her side with knees
extended, or when pain occurs with active flexion of his/her thigh at the hip.
Treatment for mild preeclampsia includes all of the D) A prescription of methyldopa (Aldomet) to control blood pressure
following except:
Recommended care for women diagnosed with preeclampsia includes bed rest with
A) Bed rest except for bathroom privileges bath- room privileges, weight and BP monitoring, and closely following urine protein
B) Close monitoring of weight and blood pressure and serum protein, creatinine, and platelet counts. Oral medications are not used as
C) Close follow-up of urinary protein, serum creatinine, and first-line treatment.
platelet count
D) A prescription of methyldopa (Aldomet) to control blood
pressure
All of the following services are covered under Medicare C) Nursing home care
Part A except:
Medicare A coverage includes inpatient hospitalization and skilled care given in a
A) Inpatienthospitalizations certified skilled nursing facility. Most nursing home care is custodial care (help with
B) Medicines administered to a patient while hospitalized bathing, dressing, using a bathroom, and eating). This care is not covered by
C) Nursing home care Medicare A.
D) Surgeons
A 28-year-old student is seen in the school health clinic B) Mycoplasma pneumonia
with complaints of a hacking cough that is productive of
small amounts of sputum and a runny nose. He does not Mycoplasma pneumonia is the organism most com- monly seen in children and
take any medications, denies any allergies, and has no young adults. It is easily spread from droplets, from sneezing and coughing, in close
significant medical history. Physical examination reveals a proximity. Diagnosis is based on symptoms and x-ray results of infiltrates in lower
low-grade temperature of 99.9 degrees Fahrenheit, lobes.
respirations of 16/min, a pulse of 90 beats per minute, and
diffuse fine crackles in the base of the lungs. A chest
radiograph (x-ray) shows diffuse infiltrates on the lower
lobe of the right lung. The total white blood cell count is
10,500/uL. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Streptococcal pneumonia
B) Mycoplasma pneumonia
C) Acute bronchitis
D) Legionnaires disease
,A 39-year-old migrant worker presents to the clinic 2.5 C) 10 mm
days after a purified protein derivative (PPD) test. What
minimum size of induration would be considered posi- tive The PPD is administered on the volar aspect of the lower arm and read 48 hours
for this patient? after the test is given. The PPD result must have induration and measure 10 mm or
greater to be positive in a low-risk patient. Induration (firmness with palpation) must
A) 3 mm B) 5 mm C) 10 mm D) 15 mm be present. If the site has erythema but no induration, result would be negative.
Color is not important.
All of the following are correct statements regarding the D) The patient's spouse has a right to override the agent's decisions
role of the person named in a durable power of attorney
except: The person named in a durable power of attorney (the agent) is designated by the
patient to make all medical decisions, as well as any decisions regarding the
A) The agent's decisions are legally binding patient's private affairs in the event that the patient becomes incompetent and
B) The agent can make decisions in other areas of the unable to make his/her own decisions. No one has the ability to override the agent's
patient's life such as financial decision.
issues
C) The agent can decide for the patient who is on life
support when that life support
can be terminated
D) The patient's spouse has a right to override the agent's
decisions
All of the following are true statements regarding B) The patient has a medical illness that causes an anxiety reaction and denial
Munchausen syndrome except:
Munchausen syndrome is a psychiatric disorder in which the patient fakes a medical
A) It is considered a mental illness illness or disorder to gain attention from health care provid- ers. These patients
B) The patient has a medical illness that causes an anxiety commonly use the emergency department frequently to gain attention.
reaction and denial
C) The patient fakes an illness in order to gain attention
from health care providers
D) The patient has an inconsistent medical history along
with a past history of
frequent hospitalizations
Which of the following antihypertensive medications should C) Beta-blockers
the nurse practitioner avoid when treating patients with
emphysema? Beta-blockers should be avoided in patients with a history of emphysema. Studies
have shown evidence of a reduction in forced expiratory volume in 1 second
A) Calcium channel blockers (FEV1), increased airway hyperresponsiveness, and inhibition of bronchodilator
B) Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors response to beta agonists in patients receiving non-selective beta- blockers and
C) Beta-blockers high doses of cardioselective beta-blockers.
D) Diuretics
A 30-year-old chef complains of pruritic hives over her A) Perform a complete and thorough history
chest and arms but denies difficulty swallowing or
breathing. She reports a family history of allergic rhinitis Prior to prescribing medications, a complete and thorough history must be
and asthma. Which of the following interventions is most performed to determine possible causes of hives. The patient denied difficulty with
appropriate? swallowing and breathing, so there was no medical emergency to require calling
911.
A) Perform a complete and thorough history
B) Prescribe an oral antihistamine such as
diphenhydramine 25 mg PO QID
C) Give an injection of epinephrine 1:1000 intramuscularly
stat
D) Call 911
Which of the following findings is most likely in young B) Edema of the face and the upper extremities
primigravidas with pregnancy-induced hypertension?
Common signs and symptoms of pregnancy-induced hypertension include edema
A) Abdominal cramping and constipation of the face and the upper extremities, weight gain, blurred vision, elevated BP,
B) Edema of the face and the upper extremities proteinuria, and headaches.
C) Shortness of breath
D) Dysuria and frequency
Which of the following symptoms is associated with B12 D) Tingling and numbness of both feet
deficiency anemia?
Vitamin B12 deficiency anemia can cause nerve cell damage if not treated.
A) Spoon-shaped nails and pica Symptoms of B12 deficiency anemia may include tingling or numbness in fingers
B) An abnormal neurological exam and toes, difficulty walking, mood changes or depression, memory loss,
C) A vegan diet disorientation, and dementia.
D) Tingling and numbness of both feet
, A second triple screen on a 35-year-old primigravida A) Order an ultrasound
reveals abnormally low lev- els of the alpha fetoprotein and
estriol and high levels of human chorionic gonad- otropin. Abnormally low levels of alpha fetoprotein and estriol and high levels of human
Which of the following interventions is the best choice for chorionic gonadotropin are abnormal during pregnancy. An ultrasound should be
this patient? ordered to further evaluate the fetus for characteristics of Down syndrome and/or
fetal demise.
A) Order an ultrasound
B) Order a computed tomography (CT) scan of the
abdomen
C) Order a 24-hour urine for protein clearance
D) Assess for a history of illicit drug or alcohol use
All of the following are true statements about diverticula C) Most diverticula in the colon are infected with gram-negative bacte-
except: ria
A) Diverticula are located in the colon Diverticuli in the colon can be infected with both gram-negative and gram- positive
B) A low-fiber diet is associated with the condition bacteria.
C) Most diverticula in the colon are infected with gram-
negative bacteria
D)
Supplementingwithfibersuchaspsyllium(Metamucil)isrecom
mended
Patients who are diagnosed with gonorrhea should also be B) Chlamydia trachomatis
treated for which of the following infections?
When diagnosed with gonorrhea, the patient should also be treated for Chlamydia
A) Chancroid trachomatis.
B) Chlamydia trachomatis
C) Herpes genitalis
D) PID (pelvic inflammatory disease)
Kyphosis is a late sign of: C) Osteoporosis
A) Old age Kyphosis is a curvature of the spine that causes a rounding of the back, which leads
B) Osteopenia to a slouching posture. Severe thinning of the bones (osteoporosis) contributes to
C) Osteoporosis this curvature in the spine. Symptoms that may occur with severe cases of kyphosis
D) Osteoarthritis include difficulty breathing, fatigue, and back pain.
A 35-year-old primigravida who is at 28 weeks of gestation B) Higher than normal
is expecting twins. What would you would expect her alpha
fetoprotein (AFP) values to be? Alpha fetoprotein is produced in the fetal and maternal liver. Higher levels of alpha
fetoprotein are commonly seen in multiple gestations due to the growing fetuses
A) Normal and enlargement of the livers.
B) Higher than normal
C) Lower than normal
D) None of the above
Which of the following antihypertensive medications has A) Calcium channel blocker
beneficial effects for an elderly White female with
osteoporosis? Calcium channel blockers act by blocking the cal- cium channels in the heart
muscle and the blood vessels, thereby keeping more calcium in the bones.
A) Calcium channel blocker
B) Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor
C) Beta-blocker
D) Diuretic
The Lachman maneuver is used to detect which of the A) Knee instability
following?
The Lachman maneuver is a test performed to assess for knee instability. Knee
A) Knee instability instability indicates a tear of the anterior cruciate ligament.
B) Nerve damage of the knee due to past knee injuries
C) The integrity of the patellar tendon
D) Tears on the meniscus of the knee
