NU 170 Exam 3: Maternal-Child Nursing Study Guide 2026 Galen
College
1. A nurse is assessing a pregnant client at 32 weeks gestation who reports
painless, bright red vaginal bleeding. Which condition should the nurse suspect?
A. Abruptio placentae
B. Preterm labor
C. Placenta previa
D. Uterine rupture
Answer: C
Rationale: Placenta previa is characterized by painless, bright red vaginal bleeding in the
second or third trimester. Abruptio placentae typically involves painful bleeding and a rigid
abdomen.
2. A client in labor is receiving Magnesium Sulfate for preeclampsia. Which
assessment finding is a priority to report to the provider?
A. Deep tendon reflexes of 2+
B. Respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute
C. Urinary output of 40 mL per hour
D. Patient reports feeling warm and flushed
Answer: B
Rationale: Magnesium sulfate toxicity causes respiratory depression (below 12/min), loss
of deep tendon reflexes, and decreased urinary output. Flushing is a common side effect,
not toxicity.
,3. Which fetal heart rate pattern is associated with uteroplacental insufficiency
and requires immediate intervention?
A. Late decelerations
B. Accelerations
C. Early decelerations
D. Moderate variability
Answer: A
Rationale: Late decelerations are caused by placental insufficiency and are non-reassuring.
Early decelerations relate to head compression, which is normal during labor.
4. A nurse is caring for a client in the fourth stage of labor. The fundus is noted
to be boggy and displaced to the right. What is the first action the nurse should
take?
A. Assist the client to the bathroom to void
B. Perform fundal massage
C. Administer oxytocin IV
D. Notify the healthcare provider
Answer: A
Rationale: A fundus displaced to the right usually indicates a full bladder, which prevents
uterine contraction. Emptying the bladder is the priority to allow the fundus to return to
midline.
, 5. A newborn is being assessed 1 minute after birth. Heart rate is 110,
respiratory effort is slow and irregular, muscle tone shows some flexion, the
baby grimaces in response to a catheter, and the body is pink with blue
extremities. What is the APGAR score?
A. 6
B. 5
C. 7
D. 8
Answer: A
Rationale: HR: 110 (2), Resp: Slow/Irregular (1), Tone: Flexion (1), Reflex: Grimace (1),
Color: Acrocyanosis (1). Total = 6.
6. A postpartum client who is breastfeeding asks the nurse when she can expect
her ovulation to return. What is the most accurate response?
A. Ovulation will not return until you stop breastfeeding completely.
B. You will not ovulate for exactly 6 months.
C. Ovulation can occur as early as 3 weeks but is usually delayed by breastfeeding.
D. Ovulation occurs only after your first menstrual period.
Answer: C
Rationale: While breastfeeding often delays ovulation, it is not a guaranteed method of
birth control as ovulation can occur before the return of menstruation.
7. Which medication is typically administered to a newborn within 1 hour of
birth to prevent ophthalmia neonatorum?
A. Erythromycin ophthalmic ointment
B. Hepatitis B vaccine
C. Vitamin K
D. Gentamicin
Answer: A
College
1. A nurse is assessing a pregnant client at 32 weeks gestation who reports
painless, bright red vaginal bleeding. Which condition should the nurse suspect?
A. Abruptio placentae
B. Preterm labor
C. Placenta previa
D. Uterine rupture
Answer: C
Rationale: Placenta previa is characterized by painless, bright red vaginal bleeding in the
second or third trimester. Abruptio placentae typically involves painful bleeding and a rigid
abdomen.
2. A client in labor is receiving Magnesium Sulfate for preeclampsia. Which
assessment finding is a priority to report to the provider?
A. Deep tendon reflexes of 2+
B. Respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute
C. Urinary output of 40 mL per hour
D. Patient reports feeling warm and flushed
Answer: B
Rationale: Magnesium sulfate toxicity causes respiratory depression (below 12/min), loss
of deep tendon reflexes, and decreased urinary output. Flushing is a common side effect,
not toxicity.
,3. Which fetal heart rate pattern is associated with uteroplacental insufficiency
and requires immediate intervention?
A. Late decelerations
B. Accelerations
C. Early decelerations
D. Moderate variability
Answer: A
Rationale: Late decelerations are caused by placental insufficiency and are non-reassuring.
Early decelerations relate to head compression, which is normal during labor.
4. A nurse is caring for a client in the fourth stage of labor. The fundus is noted
to be boggy and displaced to the right. What is the first action the nurse should
take?
A. Assist the client to the bathroom to void
B. Perform fundal massage
C. Administer oxytocin IV
D. Notify the healthcare provider
Answer: A
Rationale: A fundus displaced to the right usually indicates a full bladder, which prevents
uterine contraction. Emptying the bladder is the priority to allow the fundus to return to
midline.
, 5. A newborn is being assessed 1 minute after birth. Heart rate is 110,
respiratory effort is slow and irregular, muscle tone shows some flexion, the
baby grimaces in response to a catheter, and the body is pink with blue
extremities. What is the APGAR score?
A. 6
B. 5
C. 7
D. 8
Answer: A
Rationale: HR: 110 (2), Resp: Slow/Irregular (1), Tone: Flexion (1), Reflex: Grimace (1),
Color: Acrocyanosis (1). Total = 6.
6. A postpartum client who is breastfeeding asks the nurse when she can expect
her ovulation to return. What is the most accurate response?
A. Ovulation will not return until you stop breastfeeding completely.
B. You will not ovulate for exactly 6 months.
C. Ovulation can occur as early as 3 weeks but is usually delayed by breastfeeding.
D. Ovulation occurs only after your first menstrual period.
Answer: C
Rationale: While breastfeeding often delays ovulation, it is not a guaranteed method of
birth control as ovulation can occur before the return of menstruation.
7. Which medication is typically administered to a newborn within 1 hour of
birth to prevent ophthalmia neonatorum?
A. Erythromycin ophthalmic ointment
B. Hepatitis B vaccine
C. Vitamin K
D. Gentamicin
Answer: A
