ABSA Exam Practice Question Bank: 350+ Questions &
Rationales for SA-C Success
Crush the ABSA exam with this massive collection of 350 high-yield practice questions designed to
mirror the actual Surgical Assistant-Certified (SA-C) test format. Each question includes detailed
rationales for every answer, covering critical domains like surgical anatomy, perioperative care, and
specialty-specific operative procedures. This comprehensive bank is the ultimate tool for identifying
your knowledge gaps and building the confidence needed to pass on your first attempt
1. During a Laparoscopic Cholecystectomy, which two structures must be identified for
the "Critical View of Safety"?
Answer: Cystic Duct and Cystic Artery
Rationale: To prevent bile duct injury, the hepatocystic triangle must be cleared so only these
two structures are seen entering the gallbladder.
2. Which suture technique is best for eversion of wound edges?
Answer: Vertical Mattress
Rationale: Known as "far-far, near-near," this stitch is the gold standard for promoting edge
eversion and closing deep/superficial layers.
3. In a Posterior Approach Total Hip Arthroplasty, which muscles are detached and later
repaired?
Answer: Short External Rotators
Rationale: The piriformis and gemelli are detached from the greater trochanter to expose the
posterior hip capsule.
4. Which nerve is at highest risk during a Carotid Endarterectomy (CEA)?
Answer: Hypoglossal Nerve
Rationale: The hypoglossal nerve (CN XII) crosses the carotid bifurcation; injury leads to
tongue deviation and swallowing issues.
5. Which gloving technique is used for the initial scrub-in?
Answer: Closed Gloving
Rationale: This ensures hands never contact the outside of the sterile gown or gloves,
maintaining a strict sterile field.
6. What is the primary purpose of the "Roux limb" in a Gastric Bypass?
Answer: To bypass the majority of the stomach and duodenum
Rationale: The Roux limb restricts calorie absorption by connecting the jejunum directly to the
small stomach pouch.
, 2026 UPDATED QUESTIONS DOWNLOAD
7. Which is a "monofilament non-absorbable" suture used for vascular work?
Answer: Prolene (Polypropylene)
Rationale: Its high tensile strength and smooth surface make it ideal for vascular anastomoses
with minimal tissue trauma.
8. What is the primary function of a "Lag Screw" in ORIF?
Answer: To provide compression across the fracture line
Rationale: By engaging only the far cortex, the screw pulls bone fragments together to create
interfragmentary compression.
9. What is the recommended time for a traditional timed surgical scrub?
Answer: 3–5 minutes
Rationale: This duration is required to effectively reduce transient and resident microbial flora
on the skin.
10. Trendelenburg position increases the risk of which complication?
Answer: Increased Intraocular Pressure (IOP)
Rationale: The head-down tilt causes a fluid shift that increases venous pressure, potentially
leading to glaucoma-like stress or facial edema.
11. Which artery is ligated within the mesoappendix during an appendectomy?
Answer: Appendicular Artery
Rationale: This is a terminal branch of the ileocolic artery and must be controlled to safely
remove the appendix.
12. Which medication is given systemically before carotid cross-clamping?
Answer: Heparin Sodium
Rationale: Heparin prevents thrombus formation while blood flow is occluded during the
endarterectomy.
13. What is the earliest sign of Malignant Hyperthermia (MH)?
Answer: Unexplained increase in End-Tidal CO2 (ETCO2)
Rationale: A rapid rise in ETCO2 reflects a hypermetabolic state and usually precedes the late-
stage fever.
14. What does "PMMA" stand for in Orthopedics?
Answer: Bone Cement
Rationale: Polymethyl Methacrylate is the chemical fixative used for prosthetic components in
joint replacements.
15. Which nerve must be preserved to prevent "winged scapula"?
Answer: Long Thoracic Nerve
Rationale: This nerve innervates the serratus anterior; damage causes the scapula to protrude
from the back.
16. Which suture size is the thinnest?
Answer: 6-0
, 2026 UPDATED QUESTIONS DOWNLOAD
Rationale: In suture sizing, more zeros indicate a smaller diameter (e.g., 6-0 is much thinner
than 2-0).
17. What is the position for a Pilonidal Cystectomy?
Answer: Kraske (Jackknife)
Rationale: This modification of the prone position provides the best exposure to the
sacrococcygeal area.
18. Which gas creates pneumoperitoneum in laparoscopy?
Answer: Carbon Dioxide (CO2)
Rationale: CO2 is non-combustible and rapidly absorbed by the body, minimizing gas
embolism risks.
19. What is the correct order for a surgical count?
Answer: Field, Mayo Stand, Back Table, Off-field
Rationale: Counts must move from the surgical site outward to ensure no items remain inside
the patient.
20. Which is a sign of Local Anesthetic Systemic Toxicity (LAST)?
Answer: Metallic taste and perioral numbness
Rationale: These CNS symptoms indicate that local anesthetic has entered the bloodstream at
toxic levels.
21. Injury to the Recurrent Laryngeal Nerve (RLN) results in:
Answer: Hoarseness or loss of voice
Rationale: The RLN innervates the vocal cords; damage during thyroid surgery causes vocal
changes.
22. Which instrument is best for grasping tough fascia?
Answer: Kocher (Ochsner) Clamp
Rationale: The heavy teeth at the tip provide a secure grip on slippery, dense tissues like
fascia.
23. What is the reversal agent for Heparin?
Answer: Protamine Sulfate
Rationale: Protamine is the specific antagonist used to neutralize heparin's anticoagulant
effects.
24. What is the first action if a fire occurs on a patient?
Answer: Remove the burning materials from the patient
Rationale: Immediate removal of the heat source is the priority to prevent further tissue
damage.
25. What is the strongest layer of the abdominal wall?
Answer: Linea Alba (Fascia)
Rationale: The fascia is the primary structural layer that holds the tension of the surgical
closure.
, 2026 UPDATED QUESTIONS DOWNLOAD
26. Which hernia occurs through Hesselbach's Triangle?
Answer: Direct Inguinal Hernia
Rationale: Direct hernias push through the weakened floor of the triangle, medial to the
epigastric vessels.
27. What does a "comminuted" fracture mean?
Answer: Broken into more than two pieces
Rationale: This describes a bone that has splintered or crushed into multiple fragments.
28. What is the primary purpose of a "Time Out"?
Answer: To ensure correct patient, site, and procedure
Rationale: This is a mandatory safety check conducted immediately before the first incision.
29. Which is a "Natural Non-Absorbable" suture?
Answer: Silk
Rationale: Silk is a natural protein fiber that remains in the tissue indefinitely, despite very slow
degradation.
30. How should an assistant fix a "foggy" laparoscopic lens?
Answer: Anti-fog solution or warm saline
Rationale: Fogging is caused by temperature differences; warming the scope prevents
condensation.
31. A "Billroth II" connects the stomach to the:
Answer: Jejunum
Rationale: Billroth II is a gastrojejunostomy; Billroth I is a gastroduodenostomy.
32. Hyperextending a patient's arms (>90°) risks injury to the:
Answer: Brachial Plexus
Rationale: Stretching the arm can compress the nerve bundle against the first rib, causing
palsy.
33. Which retractor is used for the bladder in a C-Section?
Answer: Fritsch (Bladder Blade)
Rationale: This specific blade protects and retracts the bladder to expose the lower uterus.
34. Which antiseptic has a "residual" effect on the skin?
Answer: Chlorhexidine Gluconate (CHG)
Rationale: CHG binds to the skin and continues killing microbes for several hours after
application.
35. Which organ is NOT removed in a standard Whipple?
Answer: Spleen
Rationale: The Whipple removes the pancreatic head, duodenum, and gallbladder; the spleen
is typically saved.
36. "Dead space" in a wound is characterized by:
Answer: Air or fluid trapped between tissue layers
Rationale: These gaps can lead to seromas or hematomas, which increase infection risks.