NR414 Final Exam: Health Assessment Across the Lifespan
V1 Updated and Latest Questions and Correct Answers-
Regis University
1. When assessing a patient’s abdomen, in what order should the nurse perform the physical
examination techniques?
A. Inspection, Palpation, Percussion, Auscultation
B. Inspection, Auscultation, Percussion, Palpation
C. Auscultation, Inspection, Percussion, Palpation
D. Palpation, Percussion, Auscultation, Inspection
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Abdominal assessment requires a specific sequence to ensure accuracy. Inspection must
always be the first step to observe the surface. Auscultation is performed second to hear undisturbed
bowel sounds. If palpation or percussion were done first, they could stimulate peristalsis. This
stimulation might result in false positive bowel sound findings. Percussion follows to determine the
density of the underlying organs. Palpation is the final step to check for tenderness or masses. Light
palpation should always precede deep palpation for patient comfort. This systematic approach is
standard in nursing practice for digestive evaluation. Consistent adherence to this order improves clinical
diagnostic reliability.
2. Which heart sound is produced by the closure of the semilunar valves (aortic and
pulmonic)?
A. S1
B. S3
C. S2
D. S4
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The S2 heart sound signifies the beginning of ventricular diastole. It occurs when the aortic
and pulmonic valves close simultaneously. This sound is often described as a ‘dub’ in the cardiac cycle. It
is best heard at the base of the heart using the diaphragm. The closure prevents blood from flowing back
into the ventricles. S1 represents the closure of the atrioventricular valves instead. Understanding the
cardiac cycle is essential for identifying heart murmurs. S2 should be crisp and easily distinguishable
during auscultation. Splitting of S2 can sometimes be heard during inspiration in healthy individuals.
Careful timing with the carotid pulse can help differentiate S1 from S2.
,3. A 70-year-old patient presents with a loss of skin elasticity and thin, parchment-like skin.
The nurse identifies this as:
A. A normal age-related change
B. A sign of severe dehydration
C. A symptom of a nutritional deficiency
D. An adverse reaction to medication
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: As individuals age, the dermis thins significantly due to collagen loss. Subcutaneous fat also
diminishes, making the skin appear more fragile. This condition is often referred to as senile purpura or
atrophy. It is a common finding in the geriatric population during assessment. The nurse must handle the
skin gently to prevent skin tears. Elasticity naturally decreases as elastin fibers become less functional.
While dehydration can affect turgor, thinness is primarily due to aging. This process is influenced by
genetics and lifetime sun exposure. Moisturizing and sun protection are key education points for these
patients. Recognising normal aging helps avoid unnecessary medical interventions for the elderly.
4. The nurse is testing Cranial Nerve VII (Facial). Which action should the nurse ask the
patient to perform?
A. Smile, frown, and puff out the cheeks
B. Shrug the shoulders against resistance
C. Stick out the tongue and move it side to side
D. Follow a finger through the six cardinal positions of gaze
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Cranial Nerve VII is responsible for the muscles of facial expression. Testing involves
observing for symmetry during various facial movements. Asking the patient to smile allows the nurse to
check the mouth. Frowning assesses the forehead and upper facial muscles. Puffing out the cheeks tests
the strength of the buccinator muscle. Asymmetry might indicate a condition like Bell’s palsy or stroke.
The nurse also checks for eyelid closure strength during the exam. Taste on the anterior two-thirds of the
tongue is another function. However, motor function is the most commonly assessed component in
clinics. Comprehensive assessment ensures the neurological system is functioning correctly for the
patient.
, 5. During a respiratory assessment, the nurse hears high-pitched, musical sounds primarily
during expiration. These are documented as:
A. Crackles
B. Rhonchi
C. Pleural friction rub
D. Wheezes
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Wheezing is caused by air flowing through narrowed or obstructed airways. It is a
continuous musical sound that can be high or low. Most wheezes are loudest during the expiratory phase
of breathing. Conditions like asthma or COPD are frequent causes of wheezing. The nurse should note the
timing and duration of the sound. Crackles, conversely, are discontinuous popping sounds associated
with fluid. Rhonchi are low-pitched sounds often cleared by coughing. A pleural friction rub sounds like
leather rubbing together during respiration. Auscultation should be performed over all lung fields
systematically. Proper identification of adventitious sounds is vital for respiratory diagnosis.
6. What is the primary purpose of the Snellen eye chart during a physical exam?
A. To measure intraocular pressure
B. To assess visual acuity at a distance
C. To check for color blindness
D. To examine the internal structures of the eye
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The Snellen chart is the standard tool for distance vision. Patients stand twenty feet away
and read the smallest line. Each eye is tested individually while the other is covered. A result of 20/20 is
considered normal for a healthy adult. The top number represents the distance from the chart used. The
bottom number represents the distance a normal eye sees. If the bottom number is higher, the vision is
poorer. This screening is essential for identifying myopia in school-aged children. It does not provide
information about near vision or glaucoma. Regular screening helps determine if a referral to an
ophthalmologist is needed.
7. Which percussion sound would a nurse expect to hear over a healthy lung?
A. Tympany
B. Resonance
C. Dullness
D. Hyperresonance
Correct Answer: B
V1 Updated and Latest Questions and Correct Answers-
Regis University
1. When assessing a patient’s abdomen, in what order should the nurse perform the physical
examination techniques?
A. Inspection, Palpation, Percussion, Auscultation
B. Inspection, Auscultation, Percussion, Palpation
C. Auscultation, Inspection, Percussion, Palpation
D. Palpation, Percussion, Auscultation, Inspection
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Abdominal assessment requires a specific sequence to ensure accuracy. Inspection must
always be the first step to observe the surface. Auscultation is performed second to hear undisturbed
bowel sounds. If palpation or percussion were done first, they could stimulate peristalsis. This
stimulation might result in false positive bowel sound findings. Percussion follows to determine the
density of the underlying organs. Palpation is the final step to check for tenderness or masses. Light
palpation should always precede deep palpation for patient comfort. This systematic approach is
standard in nursing practice for digestive evaluation. Consistent adherence to this order improves clinical
diagnostic reliability.
2. Which heart sound is produced by the closure of the semilunar valves (aortic and
pulmonic)?
A. S1
B. S3
C. S2
D. S4
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The S2 heart sound signifies the beginning of ventricular diastole. It occurs when the aortic
and pulmonic valves close simultaneously. This sound is often described as a ‘dub’ in the cardiac cycle. It
is best heard at the base of the heart using the diaphragm. The closure prevents blood from flowing back
into the ventricles. S1 represents the closure of the atrioventricular valves instead. Understanding the
cardiac cycle is essential for identifying heart murmurs. S2 should be crisp and easily distinguishable
during auscultation. Splitting of S2 can sometimes be heard during inspiration in healthy individuals.
Careful timing with the carotid pulse can help differentiate S1 from S2.
,3. A 70-year-old patient presents with a loss of skin elasticity and thin, parchment-like skin.
The nurse identifies this as:
A. A normal age-related change
B. A sign of severe dehydration
C. A symptom of a nutritional deficiency
D. An adverse reaction to medication
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: As individuals age, the dermis thins significantly due to collagen loss. Subcutaneous fat also
diminishes, making the skin appear more fragile. This condition is often referred to as senile purpura or
atrophy. It is a common finding in the geriatric population during assessment. The nurse must handle the
skin gently to prevent skin tears. Elasticity naturally decreases as elastin fibers become less functional.
While dehydration can affect turgor, thinness is primarily due to aging. This process is influenced by
genetics and lifetime sun exposure. Moisturizing and sun protection are key education points for these
patients. Recognising normal aging helps avoid unnecessary medical interventions for the elderly.
4. The nurse is testing Cranial Nerve VII (Facial). Which action should the nurse ask the
patient to perform?
A. Smile, frown, and puff out the cheeks
B. Shrug the shoulders against resistance
C. Stick out the tongue and move it side to side
D. Follow a finger through the six cardinal positions of gaze
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Cranial Nerve VII is responsible for the muscles of facial expression. Testing involves
observing for symmetry during various facial movements. Asking the patient to smile allows the nurse to
check the mouth. Frowning assesses the forehead and upper facial muscles. Puffing out the cheeks tests
the strength of the buccinator muscle. Asymmetry might indicate a condition like Bell’s palsy or stroke.
The nurse also checks for eyelid closure strength during the exam. Taste on the anterior two-thirds of the
tongue is another function. However, motor function is the most commonly assessed component in
clinics. Comprehensive assessment ensures the neurological system is functioning correctly for the
patient.
, 5. During a respiratory assessment, the nurse hears high-pitched, musical sounds primarily
during expiration. These are documented as:
A. Crackles
B. Rhonchi
C. Pleural friction rub
D. Wheezes
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Wheezing is caused by air flowing through narrowed or obstructed airways. It is a
continuous musical sound that can be high or low. Most wheezes are loudest during the expiratory phase
of breathing. Conditions like asthma or COPD are frequent causes of wheezing. The nurse should note the
timing and duration of the sound. Crackles, conversely, are discontinuous popping sounds associated
with fluid. Rhonchi are low-pitched sounds often cleared by coughing. A pleural friction rub sounds like
leather rubbing together during respiration. Auscultation should be performed over all lung fields
systematically. Proper identification of adventitious sounds is vital for respiratory diagnosis.
6. What is the primary purpose of the Snellen eye chart during a physical exam?
A. To measure intraocular pressure
B. To assess visual acuity at a distance
C. To check for color blindness
D. To examine the internal structures of the eye
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The Snellen chart is the standard tool for distance vision. Patients stand twenty feet away
and read the smallest line. Each eye is tested individually while the other is covered. A result of 20/20 is
considered normal for a healthy adult. The top number represents the distance from the chart used. The
bottom number represents the distance a normal eye sees. If the bottom number is higher, the vision is
poorer. This screening is essential for identifying myopia in school-aged children. It does not provide
information about near vision or glaucoma. Regular screening helps determine if a referral to an
ophthalmologist is needed.
7. Which percussion sound would a nurse expect to hear over a healthy lung?
A. Tympany
B. Resonance
C. Dullness
D. Hyperresonance
Correct Answer: B
