NR414 Exam 3: Health Assessment Across the Lifespan V3
Updated and Latest Questions and Correct Answers- Regis
University
1. When assessing an 8-month-old infant, which developmental milestone should the nurse
expect to find?
A. Ability to use a spoon independently
B. Speaking in three-word sentences
C. Sitting without support
D. Walking without assistance
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The correct answer is B because sitting without support is an expected motor skill for an 8-
month-old. This milestone demonstrates the development of trunk control and balance in the infant.
Option A is incorrect because using a spoon usually develops closer to 18 months of age. Option C is
wrong because three-word sentences are typical for a child around 3 years old. Option D is incorrect as
walking independently usually occurs between 12 and 15 months. Nurses must be aware of these
timelines to identify potential developmental delays. Assessment of motor skills provides insight into the
infant’s neurological and muscular health. Observing the infant’s posture and movement is a critical part
of the physical exam. It is helpful to encourage parents to provide supervised floor time for motor
development. Comparing findings to standardized growth charts ensures accurate assessment. Early
detection of missed milestones is vital for implementing early intervention services.
2. Which of the following is considered a ‘probable’ sign of pregnancy?
A. Amenorrhea
B. Positive pregnancy test
C. Auscultation of fetal heart tones
D. Fetal movement felt by the mother
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The correct answer is C because a positive pregnancy test is categorized as a probable sign.
Probable signs are objective findings observed by the examiner but not yet definitive. Option A is a
presumptive sign, as missed periods can be caused by stress or illness. Option B is a positive sign because
it provides direct evidence of a fetus. Option D is a presumptive sign, often referred to as quickening,
which is subjective to the mother. Nurses must distinguish between presumptive, probable, and positive
signs during prenatal assessments. This classification helps in determining the likelihood and
confirmation of pregnancy for the patient. Assessment of the pelvic organs during a physical exam can
reveal other probable signs like Hegar’s sign. Understanding these signs is essential for providing
accurate education to the expectant mother. It is important to confirm pregnancy with positive signs like
,ultrasound or fetal heart rate. Proper documentation of these findings is necessary for tracking the
progression of the pregnancy.
3. In the geriatric population, what is the primary cause of decreased height associated with
aging?
A. Loss of muscle mass in the lower extremities
B. Thinning of the intervertebral discs
C. Shortening of the long bones
D. Decreased production of growth hormone
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The correct answer is C as the thinning of intervertebral discs leads to a shorter spinal
column. This structural change is a normal part of the aging process for many elderly individuals. Option
A is incorrect because muscle loss, or sarcopenia, does not directly reduce skeletal height. Option B is
wrong because long bones like the femur do not actually shorten with age. Option D is incorrect as
growth hormone levels decrease but do not cause acute height loss. Nurses should measure height
annually in geriatric patients to monitor for significant changes. Rapid height loss can sometimes indicate
vertebral compression fractures related to osteoporosis. Maintaining good posture and weight-bearing
exercise can help mitigate some of the effects of aging. Height assessment is also important for calculating
body mass index and medication dosages. Discussing these changes with patients helps set realistic
expectations for the aging process. Promoting calcium and vitamin D intake is crucial for maintaining
bone density in older adults.
4. What is the recommended age to begin annual screenings for scoliosis in school-aged
children?
A. 5 to 6 years old
B. Birth to 2 years old
C. 15 to 17 years old
D. 10 to 12 years old
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The correct answer is B because scoliosis screening is most effective during the pre-
adolescent growth spurt. This age range typically captures the onset of idiopathic scoliosis in most
children. Option A is too early as the rapid growth phase has not yet begun for most. Option C is often too
late for early intervention if a significant curve has already developed. Option D is incorrect as congenital
scoliosis is different and checked during newborn assessments. The Adam’s Forward Bend test is the
standard clinical method used during these screenings. Nurses look for spinal curvature, uneven
shoulders, or a protruding scapula during the exam. Identifying scoliosis early can lead to non-invasive
treatments like bracing rather than surgery. Schools often provide these screenings as part of their health
services for middle school students. Educating parents about what to look for at home can improve early
detection rates. Consistent screening throughout the adolescent years is vital for monitoring spinal
health.
, 5. According to Erikson’s stages of development, what is the primary task of a toddler (ages
1-3)?
A. Trust vs. Mistrust
B. Autonomy vs. Shame and Doubt
C. Initiative vs. Guilt
D. Industry vs. Inferiority
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The correct answer is C as toddlers are focused on developing a sense of personal control.
This stage involves learning independence through tasks like toilet training and choosing toys. Option A
applies to infants who are learning to rely on their caregivers for basic needs. Option B is the stage for
preschoolers who begin to assert power and control over their world. Option D refers to school-aged
children who are developing a sense of pride in their accomplishments. Nurses should encourage parents
to allow toddlers to make simple choices to foster autonomy. If a toddler is overly restricted, they may
develop a sense of shame or doubt in their abilities. Assessment of this stage involves observing the
child’s willingness to explore and try new things. Understanding these developmental tasks helps nurses
provide age-appropriate care during hospitalizations. It is important to support the toddler’s need for
routine and consistency during this transition. Validating the child’s efforts helps build their confidence
and social-emotional health.
6. A nurse is assessing a newborn and notes a heart rate of 140 beats per minute. How
should this be interpreted?
A. A normal finding for a newborn
B. Bradycardia requiring oxygen administration
C. Tachycardia requiring immediate intervention
D. A sign of impending cardiac arrest
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The correct answer is C because the normal heart rate for a newborn ranges from 120 to
160 bpm. Vital signs in infants are significantly higher than those seen in adult populations. Option A is
incorrect as 140 bpm is well within the expected range for a healthy neonate. Option B is wrong because
bradycardia in a newborn is typically defined as less than 100 bpm. Option D is incorrect because the rate
is stable and does not indicate distress in this context. Nurses must always assess the heart rate for a full
minute to account for irregularities. Auscultation of the apical pulse is the preferred method for assessing
an infant’s heart. It is common for the heart rate to fluctuate based on the newborn’s activity or crying.
Any persistent rate outside of the normal range should be investigated for underlying causes. Knowing
age-specific normal values is essential for accurate health assessment across the lifespan. Documentation
of vital signs provides a baseline for future comparisons during the hospital stay.
Updated and Latest Questions and Correct Answers- Regis
University
1. When assessing an 8-month-old infant, which developmental milestone should the nurse
expect to find?
A. Ability to use a spoon independently
B. Speaking in three-word sentences
C. Sitting without support
D. Walking without assistance
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The correct answer is B because sitting without support is an expected motor skill for an 8-
month-old. This milestone demonstrates the development of trunk control and balance in the infant.
Option A is incorrect because using a spoon usually develops closer to 18 months of age. Option C is
wrong because three-word sentences are typical for a child around 3 years old. Option D is incorrect as
walking independently usually occurs between 12 and 15 months. Nurses must be aware of these
timelines to identify potential developmental delays. Assessment of motor skills provides insight into the
infant’s neurological and muscular health. Observing the infant’s posture and movement is a critical part
of the physical exam. It is helpful to encourage parents to provide supervised floor time for motor
development. Comparing findings to standardized growth charts ensures accurate assessment. Early
detection of missed milestones is vital for implementing early intervention services.
2. Which of the following is considered a ‘probable’ sign of pregnancy?
A. Amenorrhea
B. Positive pregnancy test
C. Auscultation of fetal heart tones
D. Fetal movement felt by the mother
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The correct answer is C because a positive pregnancy test is categorized as a probable sign.
Probable signs are objective findings observed by the examiner but not yet definitive. Option A is a
presumptive sign, as missed periods can be caused by stress or illness. Option B is a positive sign because
it provides direct evidence of a fetus. Option D is a presumptive sign, often referred to as quickening,
which is subjective to the mother. Nurses must distinguish between presumptive, probable, and positive
signs during prenatal assessments. This classification helps in determining the likelihood and
confirmation of pregnancy for the patient. Assessment of the pelvic organs during a physical exam can
reveal other probable signs like Hegar’s sign. Understanding these signs is essential for providing
accurate education to the expectant mother. It is important to confirm pregnancy with positive signs like
,ultrasound or fetal heart rate. Proper documentation of these findings is necessary for tracking the
progression of the pregnancy.
3. In the geriatric population, what is the primary cause of decreased height associated with
aging?
A. Loss of muscle mass in the lower extremities
B. Thinning of the intervertebral discs
C. Shortening of the long bones
D. Decreased production of growth hormone
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The correct answer is C as the thinning of intervertebral discs leads to a shorter spinal
column. This structural change is a normal part of the aging process for many elderly individuals. Option
A is incorrect because muscle loss, or sarcopenia, does not directly reduce skeletal height. Option B is
wrong because long bones like the femur do not actually shorten with age. Option D is incorrect as
growth hormone levels decrease but do not cause acute height loss. Nurses should measure height
annually in geriatric patients to monitor for significant changes. Rapid height loss can sometimes indicate
vertebral compression fractures related to osteoporosis. Maintaining good posture and weight-bearing
exercise can help mitigate some of the effects of aging. Height assessment is also important for calculating
body mass index and medication dosages. Discussing these changes with patients helps set realistic
expectations for the aging process. Promoting calcium and vitamin D intake is crucial for maintaining
bone density in older adults.
4. What is the recommended age to begin annual screenings for scoliosis in school-aged
children?
A. 5 to 6 years old
B. Birth to 2 years old
C. 15 to 17 years old
D. 10 to 12 years old
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The correct answer is B because scoliosis screening is most effective during the pre-
adolescent growth spurt. This age range typically captures the onset of idiopathic scoliosis in most
children. Option A is too early as the rapid growth phase has not yet begun for most. Option C is often too
late for early intervention if a significant curve has already developed. Option D is incorrect as congenital
scoliosis is different and checked during newborn assessments. The Adam’s Forward Bend test is the
standard clinical method used during these screenings. Nurses look for spinal curvature, uneven
shoulders, or a protruding scapula during the exam. Identifying scoliosis early can lead to non-invasive
treatments like bracing rather than surgery. Schools often provide these screenings as part of their health
services for middle school students. Educating parents about what to look for at home can improve early
detection rates. Consistent screening throughout the adolescent years is vital for monitoring spinal
health.
, 5. According to Erikson’s stages of development, what is the primary task of a toddler (ages
1-3)?
A. Trust vs. Mistrust
B. Autonomy vs. Shame and Doubt
C. Initiative vs. Guilt
D. Industry vs. Inferiority
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The correct answer is C as toddlers are focused on developing a sense of personal control.
This stage involves learning independence through tasks like toilet training and choosing toys. Option A
applies to infants who are learning to rely on their caregivers for basic needs. Option B is the stage for
preschoolers who begin to assert power and control over their world. Option D refers to school-aged
children who are developing a sense of pride in their accomplishments. Nurses should encourage parents
to allow toddlers to make simple choices to foster autonomy. If a toddler is overly restricted, they may
develop a sense of shame or doubt in their abilities. Assessment of this stage involves observing the
child’s willingness to explore and try new things. Understanding these developmental tasks helps nurses
provide age-appropriate care during hospitalizations. It is important to support the toddler’s need for
routine and consistency during this transition. Validating the child’s efforts helps build their confidence
and social-emotional health.
6. A nurse is assessing a newborn and notes a heart rate of 140 beats per minute. How
should this be interpreted?
A. A normal finding for a newborn
B. Bradycardia requiring oxygen administration
C. Tachycardia requiring immediate intervention
D. A sign of impending cardiac arrest
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The correct answer is C because the normal heart rate for a newborn ranges from 120 to
160 bpm. Vital signs in infants are significantly higher than those seen in adult populations. Option A is
incorrect as 140 bpm is well within the expected range for a healthy neonate. Option B is wrong because
bradycardia in a newborn is typically defined as less than 100 bpm. Option D is incorrect because the rate
is stable and does not indicate distress in this context. Nurses must always assess the heart rate for a full
minute to account for irregularities. Auscultation of the apical pulse is the preferred method for assessing
an infant’s heart. It is common for the heart rate to fluctuate based on the newborn’s activity or crying.
Any persistent rate outside of the normal range should be investigated for underlying causes. Knowing
age-specific normal values is essential for accurate health assessment across the lifespan. Documentation
of vital signs provides a baseline for future comparisons during the hospital stay.
