NSG 6998 APEA Predictor Exam Study Guide
| 150 Practice Questions with Answers and
Rationales for FNP Certification Success |
INSTANT PDF DOWNLOAD
⭐⭐⭐⭐⭐ "This APEA University Predictor Exam Prep Helped Me Pass on My First
Attempt" | 150 Questions with Detailed Explanations
1. A 63-year-old male complains of pain and stiffness in his hands that worsens with
activity. On examination, he is noted to have Heberden's nodes. Which of the
following is the most probable diagnosis?
A. Rheumatoid arthritis
B. Gout
C. Psoriatic arthritis
D. Osteoarthritis
Heberden's nodes are osteophytes at the distal interphalangeal joints and are a classic
finding in osteoarthritis. OA pain typically worsens with activity, unlike inflammatory
arthritides.
2. A 78-year-old man in an assisted living center is incontinent and has walked out of
the facility twice. Which of his medications is LEAST likely contributing to his
behavior?
A. Amitriptyline
B. Hydrochlorothiazide
C. Cimetidine
D. Ramipril
Ramipril, an ACE inhibitor, is least likely to cause confusion or incontinence. Amitriptyline
,has anticholinergic effects, hydrochlorothiazide increases urination frequency, and
cimetidine can cause confusion in the elderly.
3. What is the hallmark symptom of Peripheral Arterial Disease (PAD)?
A. Lower extremity edema
B. Rest pain that improves with walking
C. Intermittent claudication
D. Warm, erythematous extremities
Intermittent claudication—muscle pain or cramping in the legs induced by exercise and
relieved by rest—is the classic symptom of PAD caused by atherosclerotic narrowing of the
arteries.
4. Which test is considered the best non-invasive method to confirm a diagnosis of
Peripheral Arterial Disease (PAD)?
A. Ankle-Brachial Index (ABI)
B. Electrocardiogram (ECG)
C. Serum lipid panel
D. Complete blood count (CBC)
*The ABI is a simple, non-invasive test that compares blood pressure in the ankle to blood
pressure in the arm. An ABI of less than 0.90 is highly sensitive and specific for diagnosing
PAD.*
5. Which of the following best describes the rash associated with shingles (Herpes
Zoster)?
A. A diffuse, maculopapular rash that starts on the face
B. Painless, discrete macules on the trunk
C. A vesicular rash in a unilateral dermatomal distribution
D. An annular ring with central clearing on the extremities
Shingles is caused by the reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus. It typically presents as a
painful, vesicular rash that is confined to a single dermatome on one side of the body.
,6. A child presents with a high fever, drooling, and a tripod position (sitting upright
and leaning forward with hands on knees). What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Croup
B. Epiglottitis
C. Asthma exacerbation
D. Peritonsillar abscess
The tripod position and drooling are classic signs of epiglottitis, a life-threatening infection
that causes inflammation of the epiglottis and can rapidly lead to airway obstruction.
7. A 10-month-old infant presents with a rash, runny nose, cough, and a cluster of
tiny white papules with an erythematous base on the buccal mucosa. What diagnosis
does this presentation suggest?
A. Roseola
B. Scarlet fever
C. Measles (Rubeola)
D. Fifth disease
The finding of Koplik spots—tiny white papules on the buccal mucosa—is pathognomonic
for measles and appears before the characteristic maculopapular rash
8. What is the most common complication of shingles (Herpes Zoster)?
A. Bacterial superinfection
B. Meningitis
C. Postherpetic neuralgia
D. Vision loss
Postherpetic neuralgia, defined as persistent pain in the affected dermatome for more than
90 days after the rash resolves, is the most common complication of shingles, particularly in
older adults.
9. A patient on warfarin (Coumadin) develops a urinary tract infection. The drug of
choice is nitrofurantoin, but the provider considers Bactrim. What adjustment is
needed if Bactrim is prescribed?
A. Increase the warfarin dose
, B. Decrease the warfarin dose
C. Hold the warfarin for 48 hours
D. No adjustment is needed
Bactrim (trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole) inhibits the metabolism of warfarin, leading to an
increased INR and bleeding risk. The warfarin dose should be decreased and INR
monitored closely.
10. A patient presents with burning during urination, frequency, and urgency. What is
the most likely diagnosis?
A. Pyelonephritis
B. Urinary Tract Infection (UTI)
C. Interstitial cystitis
D. Nephrolithiasis
The classic symptoms of dysuria, frequency, and urgency point to a lower urinary tract
infection (cystitis). Pyelonephritis would present with flank pain and fever.
11. What is the recommended first-line treatment for a healthy, non-pregnant woman
with an uncomplicated UTI?
A. Ciprofloxacin
B. Nitrofurantoin
C. Amoxicillin
D. Doxycycline
Nitrofurantoin is first-line for uncomplicated cystitis due to its low resistance rates and
minimal systemic effects. Fluoroquinolones are reserved for more complicated cases due to
resistance and side effect concerns.
12. A patient presents with intermittent claudication. On examination, the affected
limb is cool to touch with diminished hair growth. Which of the following is the most
appropriate initial diagnostic test?
A. Venous duplex ultrasound
B. Ankle-Brachial Index (ABI)
C. Arteriography
| 150 Practice Questions with Answers and
Rationales for FNP Certification Success |
INSTANT PDF DOWNLOAD
⭐⭐⭐⭐⭐ "This APEA University Predictor Exam Prep Helped Me Pass on My First
Attempt" | 150 Questions with Detailed Explanations
1. A 63-year-old male complains of pain and stiffness in his hands that worsens with
activity. On examination, he is noted to have Heberden's nodes. Which of the
following is the most probable diagnosis?
A. Rheumatoid arthritis
B. Gout
C. Psoriatic arthritis
D. Osteoarthritis
Heberden's nodes are osteophytes at the distal interphalangeal joints and are a classic
finding in osteoarthritis. OA pain typically worsens with activity, unlike inflammatory
arthritides.
2. A 78-year-old man in an assisted living center is incontinent and has walked out of
the facility twice. Which of his medications is LEAST likely contributing to his
behavior?
A. Amitriptyline
B. Hydrochlorothiazide
C. Cimetidine
D. Ramipril
Ramipril, an ACE inhibitor, is least likely to cause confusion or incontinence. Amitriptyline
,has anticholinergic effects, hydrochlorothiazide increases urination frequency, and
cimetidine can cause confusion in the elderly.
3. What is the hallmark symptom of Peripheral Arterial Disease (PAD)?
A. Lower extremity edema
B. Rest pain that improves with walking
C. Intermittent claudication
D. Warm, erythematous extremities
Intermittent claudication—muscle pain or cramping in the legs induced by exercise and
relieved by rest—is the classic symptom of PAD caused by atherosclerotic narrowing of the
arteries.
4. Which test is considered the best non-invasive method to confirm a diagnosis of
Peripheral Arterial Disease (PAD)?
A. Ankle-Brachial Index (ABI)
B. Electrocardiogram (ECG)
C. Serum lipid panel
D. Complete blood count (CBC)
*The ABI is a simple, non-invasive test that compares blood pressure in the ankle to blood
pressure in the arm. An ABI of less than 0.90 is highly sensitive and specific for diagnosing
PAD.*
5. Which of the following best describes the rash associated with shingles (Herpes
Zoster)?
A. A diffuse, maculopapular rash that starts on the face
B. Painless, discrete macules on the trunk
C. A vesicular rash in a unilateral dermatomal distribution
D. An annular ring with central clearing on the extremities
Shingles is caused by the reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus. It typically presents as a
painful, vesicular rash that is confined to a single dermatome on one side of the body.
,6. A child presents with a high fever, drooling, and a tripod position (sitting upright
and leaning forward with hands on knees). What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Croup
B. Epiglottitis
C. Asthma exacerbation
D. Peritonsillar abscess
The tripod position and drooling are classic signs of epiglottitis, a life-threatening infection
that causes inflammation of the epiglottis and can rapidly lead to airway obstruction.
7. A 10-month-old infant presents with a rash, runny nose, cough, and a cluster of
tiny white papules with an erythematous base on the buccal mucosa. What diagnosis
does this presentation suggest?
A. Roseola
B. Scarlet fever
C. Measles (Rubeola)
D. Fifth disease
The finding of Koplik spots—tiny white papules on the buccal mucosa—is pathognomonic
for measles and appears before the characteristic maculopapular rash
8. What is the most common complication of shingles (Herpes Zoster)?
A. Bacterial superinfection
B. Meningitis
C. Postherpetic neuralgia
D. Vision loss
Postherpetic neuralgia, defined as persistent pain in the affected dermatome for more than
90 days after the rash resolves, is the most common complication of shingles, particularly in
older adults.
9. A patient on warfarin (Coumadin) develops a urinary tract infection. The drug of
choice is nitrofurantoin, but the provider considers Bactrim. What adjustment is
needed if Bactrim is prescribed?
A. Increase the warfarin dose
, B. Decrease the warfarin dose
C. Hold the warfarin for 48 hours
D. No adjustment is needed
Bactrim (trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole) inhibits the metabolism of warfarin, leading to an
increased INR and bleeding risk. The warfarin dose should be decreased and INR
monitored closely.
10. A patient presents with burning during urination, frequency, and urgency. What is
the most likely diagnosis?
A. Pyelonephritis
B. Urinary Tract Infection (UTI)
C. Interstitial cystitis
D. Nephrolithiasis
The classic symptoms of dysuria, frequency, and urgency point to a lower urinary tract
infection (cystitis). Pyelonephritis would present with flank pain and fever.
11. What is the recommended first-line treatment for a healthy, non-pregnant woman
with an uncomplicated UTI?
A. Ciprofloxacin
B. Nitrofurantoin
C. Amoxicillin
D. Doxycycline
Nitrofurantoin is first-line for uncomplicated cystitis due to its low resistance rates and
minimal systemic effects. Fluoroquinolones are reserved for more complicated cases due to
resistance and side effect concerns.
12. A patient presents with intermittent claudication. On examination, the affected
limb is cool to touch with diminished hair growth. Which of the following is the most
appropriate initial diagnostic test?
A. Venous duplex ultrasound
B. Ankle-Brachial Index (ABI)
C. Arteriography
