NR 602 Midterm Exam Preparation 2026 Chamberlain College
1. At what age should a child typically be able to walk independently?
A. 6 to 9 months
B. 12 to 15 months
C. 18 to 21 months
D. 24 months
Answer: B
Rationale: Most children achieve independent walking between 12 and 15 months;
developmental delay concerns usually begin if not walking by 18 months.
2. Tanner Stage 2 in girls is characterized by which of the following?
A. Elevation of the nipple only
B. Breast budding (thelarche)
C. Formation of a secondary mound of the areola
D. Recession of the areola to the breast contour
Answer: B
Rationale: Tanner Stage 2 is the first sign of puberty in girls, characterized by breast buds
and a small amount of pubic hair.
3. What is the first-line antibiotic treatment for an uncomplicated acute otitis
media in a child with no allergies?
A. Amoxicillin
B. Cephalexin
C. Azithromycin
D. Ciprofloxacin
Answer: A
,Rationale: High-dose Amoxicillin (80-90 mg/kg/day) is the first-line treatment for
pediatric acute otitis media.
4. The presence of ‘clue cells’ on a saline wet mount is a diagnostic hallmark for:
A. Chlamydia
B. Trichomoniasis
C. Vulvovaginal Candidiasis
D. Bacterial Vaginosis
Answer: D
Rationale: Clue cells are vaginal epithelial cells coated with bacteria, characteristic of
Bacterial Vaginosis (BV).
5. At what age is the first dose of the MMR (Measles, Mumps, Rubella) vaccine
typically administered?
A. 12 to 15 months
B. 6 months
C. At birth
D. 4 to 6 years
Answer: A
Rationale: The first dose of the MMR vaccine is recommended between 12 and 15 months
of age.
6. Which cranial nerve is primarily affected in Bell’s Palsy?
A. CN V (Trigeminal)
B. CN X (Vagus)
C. CN VIII (Vestibulocochlear)
D. CN VII (Facial)
Answer: D
Rationale: Bell’s Palsy is an acute peripheral facial nerve (CN VII) palsy.
, 7. Which of the following is considered the Gold Standard for the diagnosis of
endometriosis?
A. Pelvic Ultrasound
B. Laparoscopy with biopsy
C. CA-125 level
D. MRI of the pelvis
Answer: B
Rationale: Endometriosis is definitively diagnosed through direct visualization via
laparoscopy and histologic confirmation.
8. A 14-year-old male presents with a painless, fluid-filled scrotal mass that
transilluminates. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Hydrocele
B. Inguinal Hernia
C. Testicular Torsion
D. Varicocele
Answer: A
Rationale: A hydrocele is a collection of fluid in the tunica vaginalis that typically
transilluminates.
9. Which of the following is an absolute contraindication for combined oral
contraceptives?
A. Migraine without aura
B. Controlled hypertension
C. History of deep vein thrombosis (DVT)
D. Age 30 and non-smoker
Answer: C
Rationale: A history of DVT or thromboembolic disorders is a Category 4 contraindication
for estrogen-containing contraceptives.
1. At what age should a child typically be able to walk independently?
A. 6 to 9 months
B. 12 to 15 months
C. 18 to 21 months
D. 24 months
Answer: B
Rationale: Most children achieve independent walking between 12 and 15 months;
developmental delay concerns usually begin if not walking by 18 months.
2. Tanner Stage 2 in girls is characterized by which of the following?
A. Elevation of the nipple only
B. Breast budding (thelarche)
C. Formation of a secondary mound of the areola
D. Recession of the areola to the breast contour
Answer: B
Rationale: Tanner Stage 2 is the first sign of puberty in girls, characterized by breast buds
and a small amount of pubic hair.
3. What is the first-line antibiotic treatment for an uncomplicated acute otitis
media in a child with no allergies?
A. Amoxicillin
B. Cephalexin
C. Azithromycin
D. Ciprofloxacin
Answer: A
,Rationale: High-dose Amoxicillin (80-90 mg/kg/day) is the first-line treatment for
pediatric acute otitis media.
4. The presence of ‘clue cells’ on a saline wet mount is a diagnostic hallmark for:
A. Chlamydia
B. Trichomoniasis
C. Vulvovaginal Candidiasis
D. Bacterial Vaginosis
Answer: D
Rationale: Clue cells are vaginal epithelial cells coated with bacteria, characteristic of
Bacterial Vaginosis (BV).
5. At what age is the first dose of the MMR (Measles, Mumps, Rubella) vaccine
typically administered?
A. 12 to 15 months
B. 6 months
C. At birth
D. 4 to 6 years
Answer: A
Rationale: The first dose of the MMR vaccine is recommended between 12 and 15 months
of age.
6. Which cranial nerve is primarily affected in Bell’s Palsy?
A. CN V (Trigeminal)
B. CN X (Vagus)
C. CN VIII (Vestibulocochlear)
D. CN VII (Facial)
Answer: D
Rationale: Bell’s Palsy is an acute peripheral facial nerve (CN VII) palsy.
, 7. Which of the following is considered the Gold Standard for the diagnosis of
endometriosis?
A. Pelvic Ultrasound
B. Laparoscopy with biopsy
C. CA-125 level
D. MRI of the pelvis
Answer: B
Rationale: Endometriosis is definitively diagnosed through direct visualization via
laparoscopy and histologic confirmation.
8. A 14-year-old male presents with a painless, fluid-filled scrotal mass that
transilluminates. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Hydrocele
B. Inguinal Hernia
C. Testicular Torsion
D. Varicocele
Answer: A
Rationale: A hydrocele is a collection of fluid in the tunica vaginalis that typically
transilluminates.
9. Which of the following is an absolute contraindication for combined oral
contraceptives?
A. Migraine without aura
B. Controlled hypertension
C. History of deep vein thrombosis (DVT)
D. Age 30 and non-smoker
Answer: C
Rationale: A history of DVT or thromboembolic disorders is a Category 4 contraindication
for estrogen-containing contraceptives.
