NR 602 Childbearing Care Final Exam Practice 2026 Chamberlain
College
1. At what gestational age is the fundus typically at the level of the umbilicus?
A. 12 weeks
B. 16 weeks
C. 20 weeks
D. 24 weeks
Answer: C
Rationale: At 20 weeks of gestation, the fundus is typically located at the level of the
umbilicus. Before this, it is at the symphysis pubis at 12 weeks.
2. Which screening test is typically performed between 24 and 28 weeks of
gestation?
A. Glucose Challenge Test (GCT)
B. Group B Streptococcus (GBS) culture
C. Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) screening
D. Nuchal translucency scan
Answer: A
Rationale: The Glucose Challenge Test for gestational diabetes is routinely performed
between 24 and 28 weeks. GBS is usually done at 35-37 weeks.
,3. What is the classic triad of symptoms for preeclampsia?
A. Glycosuria, hypertension, and edema
B. Hypertension, seizures, and blurred vision
C. Hypotension, proteinuria, and headache
D. Hypertension, proteinuria, and edema
Answer: D
Rationale: The classic triad for preeclampsia includes hypertension (BP > 140/90),
proteinuria, and generalized edema, although edema is no longer a strict diagnostic
criterion.
4. Which of the following is a symptom of Abruptio Placentae?
A. Painless bright red vaginal bleeding
B. Rigid, board-like abdomen with severe pain
C. Soft uterus with no bleeding
D. Increase in fetal movement
Answer: B
Rationale: Abruptio placentae is characterized by painful vaginal bleeding (or concealed
bleeding) and a rigid, board-like, tender uterus.
5. RhoGAM is administered to Rh-negative mothers at 28 weeks and within 72
hours of delivery if:
A. The baby is Rh-negative
B. The mother has a high titer of antibodies
C. The father is Rh-negative
D. The baby is Rh-positive
Answer: D
Rationale: RhoGAM is given to prevent sensitization in Rh-negative mothers when the
fetus is Rh-positive.
, 6. What is the primary purpose of the Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) screening?
A. To detect gestational diabetes
B. To check for Rh incompatibility
C. To confirm fetal lung maturity
D. To screen for neural tube defects and Down syndrome
Answer: D
Rationale: AFP screening is used to identify risks for neural tube defects (high levels) or
chromosomal abnormalities like Down syndrome (low levels).
7. A reactive Non-Stress Test (NST) is defined by:
A. Persistent late decelerations
B. No fetal movement for 40 minutes
C. Two or more accelerations in 20 minutes
D. Occasional variable decelerations
Answer: C
Rationale: A reactive NST requires at least two fetal heart rate accelerations of at least 15
bpm above baseline, lasting 15 seconds, within a 20-minute window.
8. Which hormone is primarily responsible for maintaining the corpus luteum in
early pregnancy?
A. Progesterone
B. Human Chorionic Gonadotropin (hCG)
C. Estrogen
D. Oxytocin
Answer: B
Rationale: hCG is produced by the trophoblast and maintains the corpus luteum to ensure
progesterone production until the placenta takes over.
College
1. At what gestational age is the fundus typically at the level of the umbilicus?
A. 12 weeks
B. 16 weeks
C. 20 weeks
D. 24 weeks
Answer: C
Rationale: At 20 weeks of gestation, the fundus is typically located at the level of the
umbilicus. Before this, it is at the symphysis pubis at 12 weeks.
2. Which screening test is typically performed between 24 and 28 weeks of
gestation?
A. Glucose Challenge Test (GCT)
B. Group B Streptococcus (GBS) culture
C. Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) screening
D. Nuchal translucency scan
Answer: A
Rationale: The Glucose Challenge Test for gestational diabetes is routinely performed
between 24 and 28 weeks. GBS is usually done at 35-37 weeks.
,3. What is the classic triad of symptoms for preeclampsia?
A. Glycosuria, hypertension, and edema
B. Hypertension, seizures, and blurred vision
C. Hypotension, proteinuria, and headache
D. Hypertension, proteinuria, and edema
Answer: D
Rationale: The classic triad for preeclampsia includes hypertension (BP > 140/90),
proteinuria, and generalized edema, although edema is no longer a strict diagnostic
criterion.
4. Which of the following is a symptom of Abruptio Placentae?
A. Painless bright red vaginal bleeding
B. Rigid, board-like abdomen with severe pain
C. Soft uterus with no bleeding
D. Increase in fetal movement
Answer: B
Rationale: Abruptio placentae is characterized by painful vaginal bleeding (or concealed
bleeding) and a rigid, board-like, tender uterus.
5. RhoGAM is administered to Rh-negative mothers at 28 weeks and within 72
hours of delivery if:
A. The baby is Rh-negative
B. The mother has a high titer of antibodies
C. The father is Rh-negative
D. The baby is Rh-positive
Answer: D
Rationale: RhoGAM is given to prevent sensitization in Rh-negative mothers when the
fetus is Rh-positive.
, 6. What is the primary purpose of the Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) screening?
A. To detect gestational diabetes
B. To check for Rh incompatibility
C. To confirm fetal lung maturity
D. To screen for neural tube defects and Down syndrome
Answer: D
Rationale: AFP screening is used to identify risks for neural tube defects (high levels) or
chromosomal abnormalities like Down syndrome (low levels).
7. A reactive Non-Stress Test (NST) is defined by:
A. Persistent late decelerations
B. No fetal movement for 40 minutes
C. Two or more accelerations in 20 minutes
D. Occasional variable decelerations
Answer: C
Rationale: A reactive NST requires at least two fetal heart rate accelerations of at least 15
bpm above baseline, lasting 15 seconds, within a 20-minute window.
8. Which hormone is primarily responsible for maintaining the corpus luteum in
early pregnancy?
A. Progesterone
B. Human Chorionic Gonadotropin (hCG)
C. Estrogen
D. Oxytocin
Answer: B
Rationale: hCG is produced by the trophoblast and maintains the corpus luteum to ensure
progesterone production until the placenta takes over.
