BSN 346 Concepts of Nursing III Exam 1 Prep
Updated and Verified Questions and Answers
1. A patient’s ABG results are pH 7.28, PaCO2 55, and HCO3 26. How should the
nurse interpret these findings?
A. Respiratory Alkalosis
B. Metabolic Acidosis
C. Metabolic Alkalosis
D. Respiratory Acidosis
Answer: D
Explanation: A pH below 7.35 indicates acidosis, and a PaCO2 above 45 mmHg with a
normal HCO3 indicates that the primary cause is respiratory.
2. When caring for a patient in septic shock, which intervention should the
nurse prioritize first?
A. Administering intravenous vasopressors
B. Initiating rapid fluid resuscitation with crystalloids
C. Obtaining blood cultures
D. Starting broad-spectrum antibiotics
Answer: B
Explanation: Fluid resuscitation is the first priority in shock management to restore
volume and perfusion, often occurring simultaneously with or just before obtaining
cultures and starting antibiotics.
,3. A patient has sustained burns to the entire left arm and the anterior trunk.
Using the Rule of Nines, what is the total body surface area (TBSA) percentage?
A. 27%
B. 18%
C. 36%
D. 22.5%
Answer: A
Explanation: The entire arm is 9% and the anterior trunk is 18%. Totaling these gives
27%.
4. The nurse is monitoring a patient on a mechanical ventilator. The high-
pressure alarm sounds. What is a likely cause?
A. The patient biting the endotracheal tube
B. A leak in the ventilator circuit
C. Disconnected oxygen supply
D. The patient’s cuff is deflated
Answer: A
Explanation: High-pressure alarms are triggered by increased resistance, such as biting
the tube, secretions, or kinks. Leaks and disconnections cause low-pressure alarms.
5. Which assessment finding is part of Cushing’s Triad, indicating increased
intracranial pressure?
A. Tachycardia
B. Hypotension
C. Rapid, shallow respirations
D. Widening pulse pressure
Answer: D
Explanation: Cushing’s Triad includes bradycardia, irregular respirations, and widening
pulse pressure (increased systolic BP).
, 6. A patient with Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome (ARDS) is placed on PEEP.
What is the primary purpose of this setting?
A. To decrease the work of breathing
B. To provide sedation for the patient
C. To increase the fraction of inspired oxygen
D. To prevent alveolar collapse at the end of expiration
Answer: D
Explanation: Positive End-Expiratory Pressure (PEEP) keeps alveoli open at the end of
expiration to improve gas exchange and oxygenation.
7. A nurse is caring for a patient in the emergent phase of a burn injury. Which
electrolyte imbalance is expected?
A. Hypokalemia
B. Hypernatremia
C. Hypocalcemia
D. Hyperkalemia
Answer: D
Explanation: In the emergent phase, cell destruction releases potassium into the
extracellular fluid, leading to hyperkalemia.
8. What is the target Mean Arterial Pressure (MAP) for a patient in shock to
ensure adequate organ perfusion?
A. At least 50 mmHg
B. At least 100 mmHg
C. At least 80 mmHg
D. At least 65 mmHg
Answer: D
Explanation: A MAP of at least 65 mmHg is generally required to maintain adequate
perfusion to vital organs.
Updated and Verified Questions and Answers
1. A patient’s ABG results are pH 7.28, PaCO2 55, and HCO3 26. How should the
nurse interpret these findings?
A. Respiratory Alkalosis
B. Metabolic Acidosis
C. Metabolic Alkalosis
D. Respiratory Acidosis
Answer: D
Explanation: A pH below 7.35 indicates acidosis, and a PaCO2 above 45 mmHg with a
normal HCO3 indicates that the primary cause is respiratory.
2. When caring for a patient in septic shock, which intervention should the
nurse prioritize first?
A. Administering intravenous vasopressors
B. Initiating rapid fluid resuscitation with crystalloids
C. Obtaining blood cultures
D. Starting broad-spectrum antibiotics
Answer: B
Explanation: Fluid resuscitation is the first priority in shock management to restore
volume and perfusion, often occurring simultaneously with or just before obtaining
cultures and starting antibiotics.
,3. A patient has sustained burns to the entire left arm and the anterior trunk.
Using the Rule of Nines, what is the total body surface area (TBSA) percentage?
A. 27%
B. 18%
C. 36%
D. 22.5%
Answer: A
Explanation: The entire arm is 9% and the anterior trunk is 18%. Totaling these gives
27%.
4. The nurse is monitoring a patient on a mechanical ventilator. The high-
pressure alarm sounds. What is a likely cause?
A. The patient biting the endotracheal tube
B. A leak in the ventilator circuit
C. Disconnected oxygen supply
D. The patient’s cuff is deflated
Answer: A
Explanation: High-pressure alarms are triggered by increased resistance, such as biting
the tube, secretions, or kinks. Leaks and disconnections cause low-pressure alarms.
5. Which assessment finding is part of Cushing’s Triad, indicating increased
intracranial pressure?
A. Tachycardia
B. Hypotension
C. Rapid, shallow respirations
D. Widening pulse pressure
Answer: D
Explanation: Cushing’s Triad includes bradycardia, irregular respirations, and widening
pulse pressure (increased systolic BP).
, 6. A patient with Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome (ARDS) is placed on PEEP.
What is the primary purpose of this setting?
A. To decrease the work of breathing
B. To provide sedation for the patient
C. To increase the fraction of inspired oxygen
D. To prevent alveolar collapse at the end of expiration
Answer: D
Explanation: Positive End-Expiratory Pressure (PEEP) keeps alveoli open at the end of
expiration to improve gas exchange and oxygenation.
7. A nurse is caring for a patient in the emergent phase of a burn injury. Which
electrolyte imbalance is expected?
A. Hypokalemia
B. Hypernatremia
C. Hypocalcemia
D. Hyperkalemia
Answer: D
Explanation: In the emergent phase, cell destruction releases potassium into the
extracellular fluid, leading to hyperkalemia.
8. What is the target Mean Arterial Pressure (MAP) for a patient in shock to
ensure adequate organ perfusion?
A. At least 50 mmHg
B. At least 100 mmHg
C. At least 80 mmHg
D. At least 65 mmHg
Answer: D
Explanation: A MAP of at least 65 mmHg is generally required to maintain adequate
perfusion to vital organs.
