NSG 6420 Week 4 Quiz | VERIFIED SOLUTION

NSG 6420 Week 4 Quiz Question 1 (2 points) A patient comes to a clinic for an annual visit. He has a history of Type 2 DM. His lab work today indicates creatinine of 1.6 (0.6–1.5). Last year, his BP was 138/80 in both arms. Today, his BP is 150/80 in both arms. Which of the following is the most appropriate intervention? Question 1 options: Placing him on an alpha blocker Counseling him to lower his BP with lifestyle modification Counseling him regarding lifestyle modifications and placing him on an ACE-I Counseling him regarding lifestyle modifications and placing him on a vasodilator Question 2 (2 points) A seventy-eight-year-old African American woman presents to your office as a new patient. She complains of headache and dizziness. Her PMH is significant for HTN. She states, "I have been taking HCTZ for a long time." Her temperature is normal. BP 190/100, HR 86, RR 16. Which of the following would be the most appropriate action to assist in determining how to treat her current symptoms? Question 2 options: Perform a fundoscopic exam of her eyes. Perform a monofilament test on her feet. Order an echocardiogram for the next week