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NAB CORE EXAM 2026 COMPLETE STUDY GUIDE – VERIFIED QUESTIONS & ANSWERS | A+ RATED NAB PRACTICE TEST WITH FULL SOLUTIONS

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Prepare with a comprehensive NAB Core exam study guide tailored for 2026 certification success Includes fully verified questions and accurate answers designed to reflect real NAB exam structure Covers key domains in long-term care administration, leadership, and healthcare operations Features complete step-by-step solutions to strengthen understanding and critical thinking Built for high performance, helping candidates confidently target top scores and certification success Ideal for self-paced study, revision, and exam simulation practice Proven A+ rated resource trusted by candidates aiming for fast-track mastery and exam excellence

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NAB CORE EXAM 2026 COMPLETE STUDY
GUIDE – VERIFIED QUESTIONS & ANSWERS |
A+ RATED NAB PRACTICE TEST WITH FULL
SOLUTIONS
NAB CORE EXAM COMPLETE STUDY GUIDE

Verified Practice Questions | A+ Rated | Full Solutions & RATIONALE




Q1. A resident has the right to refuse treatment under which federal regulation?

A. OSHA Standards

B. The Medicare Conditions of Participation

C. The Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act (OBRA) 1987

D. The Americans with Disabilities Act

E. The Social Security Act Title XIX

CORRECT ANSWER: C. The Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act (OBRA) 1987

RATIONALE: OBRA 1987 established comprehensive residents' rights in long-
term care facilities, including the right to refuse treatment, participate in care planning,
and maintain privacy and dignity.


Q2. Which document serves as the foundation for a resident's individualized care
plan in a skilled nursing facility?

A. The physician's admission orders
B. The Minimum Data Set (MDS)

C. The resident's insurance records

D. The family's written preferences

E. The discharge summary from the hospital

CORRECT ANSWER: B. The Minimum Data Set (MDS)

, RATIONALE: The MDS is a federally mandated comprehensive assessment tool
used to evaluate residents' functional capabilities and health status, forming the basis
for individualized care planning in SNFs.


Q3. A care plan meeting must be held within how many days of a resident's
admission to a skilled nursing facility?

A. 7 days

B. 14 days

C. 21 days

D. 30 days

E. 45 days

CORRECT ANSWER: C. 21 days

RATIONALE: Federal regulations require that a comprehensive care plan be
developed within 7 days of completing the comprehensive assessment, which itself
must be completed within 14 days, effectively making the care plan due within 21 days
of admission.



Q4. Which of the following best describes the principle of "person-centered care"
in long-term care?

A. Care focused on medical outcomes only
B. Care that prioritizes administrative efficiency

C. Care planned and delivered around individual preferences, values, and goals
D. Care directed solely by the physician's orders

E. Care focused on cost containment

CORRECT ANSWER: C. Care planned and delivered around individual
preferences, values, and goals

RATIONALE: Person-centered care recognizes each resident as an individual with
unique preferences and values. It ensures that residents actively participate in decision-
making about their own care and daily life.

,Q5. Under OBRA regulations, physical restraints may be used:

A. Whenever staff feel it is necessary for safety

B. Only with family consent

C. Only as a last resort after alternatives have failed and with a physician's order and
informed consent

D. Routinely at night to prevent falls

E. At the discretion of the charge nurse

CORRECT ANSWER: C. Only as a last resort after alternatives have failed and
with a physician's order and informed consent

RATIONALE: OBRA 1987 significantly restricted the use of physical restraints.
They are only permitted when clinically necessary, after less restrictive alternatives have
been tried, and require a physician's order along with the resident's or surrogate's
informed consent.



Q6. Who is required to be part of the interdisciplinary care planning team?

A. The administrator and the board of directors

B. The resident, attending physician, nursing staff, and other relevant professionals
C. Only licensed nursing staff

D. The facility's legal counsel

E. The state survey team

CORRECT ANSWER: B. The resident, attending physician, nursing staff, and
other relevant professionals

RATIONALE: Federal regulations require that the care planning team include the
resident (and family/representative if desired), the attending physician, registered nurse,
and other disciplines relevant to the resident's condition such as therapy, social work,
and dietary.


Q7. A resident who is cognitively impaired should have their care decisions made
by:
A. The nursing home administrator

, B. The charge nurse on duty

C. A legally authorized representative or surrogate decision-maker

D. The state ombudsman

E. The facility's medical director

CORRECT ANSWER: C. A legally authorized representative or surrogate
decision-maker

RATIONALE: When a resident lacks decision-making capacity, a legally
authorized representative (such as a power of attorney for healthcare or court-appointed
guardian) assumes responsibility for making care decisions in the resident's best
interest.



Q8. What is the primary purpose of the Resident Assessment Instrument (RAI)?

A. To determine staffing ratios

B. To bill Medicare accurately
C. To comprehensively assess and monitor resident needs to guide care planning

D. To evaluate staff performance

E. To document incident reports

CORRECT ANSWER: C. To comprehensively assess and monitor resident
needs to guide care planning

RATIONALE: The RAI, which includes the MDS and Care Area Assessments
(CAAs), is designed to help staff identify a resident's strengths, preferences, and needs
and develop a comprehensive, individualized care plan.


Q9. Which federal agency is primarily responsible for overseeing nursing home
quality and compliance?

A. The Joint Commission

B. The Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS)

C. The Department of Labor
D. The Food and Drug Administration

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