Iaed Emd V14 Certification Exam – Complete Questions with
Answers 2026
IAED EMD V14 Certification Practice Exam
Section 1: The 6 Pillars of EMD & Core Concepts (Questions 1-8)
Question 1: During a call, a caller reports that her husband "isn't breathing right" and makes
gasping sounds every few seconds. The EMD recognizes this as agonal breathing. According to
MPDS V14 protocol, what is the immediate priority?
A. Complete the Case Entry Key Questions to determine the appropriate protocol B.
Immediately select Protocol 9: Cardiac/Respiratory Arrest/Death C. Ask if the patient has a
history of sleep apnea D. Provide instructions for the recovery position
Correct Answer: B
Explainer: Agonal breathing (the "Clamor") is characterized by gasping, gurgling, or snorting
respirations and indicates cardiac arrest. Per MPDS V14 Case Entry Rule 3, agonal breathing is
treated as "not breathing normally" requiring immediate selection of Protocol 9. The distractor
A is incorrect because completing all Case Entry questions delays critical intervention for a
patient in cardiac arrest; Protocol 9 must be selected immediately when agonal breathing is
identified.
Question 2: An EMD receives a call for a 16-year-old male who was stabbed in the abdomen
during an altercation. The patient is conscious and breathing normally. Which protocol should
be selected?
A. Protocol 4: Assault/Sexual Assault/Stun Gun B. Protocol 27: Stab/Gunshot/Penetrating
Trauma C. Protocol 30: Traumatic Injuries D. Protocol 21: Hemorrhage/Lacerations
Correct Answer: B
Explainer: MPDS V14 prioritizes mechanism of injury over injury presentation. Protocol 27
specifically addresses penetrating trauma (stab wounds, gunshot wounds). While Protocol 30
covers general trauma and Protocol 21 addresses bleeding, Protocol 27 is the correct choice
because penetrating trauma to the torso carries high risk for internal injury regardless of
external bleeding. Protocol 4 is incorrect as it focuses on the assault event rather than the
traumatic injury mechanism.
,Question 3: Which statement best describes the EMD's legal responsibility regarding pre-arrival
instructions?
A. EMDs are legally protected from all liability when following approved protocols B. EMDs must
provide instructions only if the caller agrees to accept them C. EMDs have a duty to act by
providing appropriate instructions based on protocol, but callers retain the right to refuse D.
EMDs should avoid giving medical advice to prevent malpractice claims
Correct Answer: C
Explainer: Under the 6 Pillars of EMD (Legal Issues), EMDs have a duty to provide appropriate
pre-arrival instructions based on approved protocols. However, callers maintain autonomy and
may refuse instructions. The Good Samaritan doctrine and protocol adherence generally
provide legal protection, but this is not absolute immunity (making A incorrect). Option D
contradicts the fundamental EMD role of providing life-saving instructions.
Question 4: A caller reports a 5-year-old child who swallowed an unknown number of her
grandmother's blood pressure pills 30 minutes ago. The child is currently conscious and alert.
Which determinant code applies?
A. 23-A-1 B. 23-B-1 C. 23-C-1 D. 23-D-1
Correct Answer: C
Explainer: Protocol 23 (Overdose/Poisoning/Ingestion) assigns determinant codes based on
consciousness and status. A conscious patient with ingestion of medication (especially
cardiovascular medications in a pediatric patient) receives a CHARLIE-level response (23-C-1)
due to the high risk of rapid deterioration. ALPHA (23-A-1) is for minor ingestions with no
symptoms, and BRAVO (23-B-1) typically involves unknown substances without immediate
symptoms in adults. DELTA requires unconsciousness or severe symptoms.
Question 5: According to MPDS V14, what is the definition of an "adult" for protocol purposes?
A. 12 years of age or older B. 15 years of age or older C. 16 years of age or older D. 18 years of
age or older
Correct Answer: B
Explainer: MPDS V14 defines age categories as: Infant (less than 1 year), Child (1-7 years), Adult
(15 years or older), and a specific category for patients 8-14 years (formerly "Young Adult" in
earlier versions, now handled within protocols). The 15-year threshold is critical because
, physiologically, patients 15+ are treated as adults for most medical emergencies, though
pregnancy protocols have different age considerations. Option A was used in earlier protocol
versions but was updated based on medical evidence.
Question 6: Which scenario demonstrates the principle of "Treat first, then interrogate"?
A. Obtaining a complete medical history before providing CPR instructions B. Starting
hemorrhage control instructions while asking about medication allergies C. Completing all Case
Entry questions before selecting any protocol D. Waiting for the caller to describe the scene
before dispatching units
Correct Answer: B
Explainer: "Treat first, then interrogate" is a fundamental EMD principle emphasizing immediate
intervention for life threats while gathering additional information simultaneously. In severe
hemorrhage, controlling bleeding takes precedence over detailed history-taking. Option A
violates this principle by delaying critical treatment. The Case Entry questions (C) must be
completed for appropriate protocol selection, but this occurs before treatment begins, not
delaying it.
Question 7: During CQI review, an EMD is found to have assigned a BRAVO-level response to a
45-year-old male with chest pain that occurred at rest and has now resolved. The patient has no
cardiac history. What is the appropriate determinant code?
A. 10-A-1 B. 10-B-1 C. 10-C-1 D. 10-D-1
Correct Answer: C
Explainer: Protocol 10 (Chest Pain) assigns CHARLIE-level (10-C-1) for chest pain in patients 35
years or older regardless of whether pain has resolved, due to the high risk of acute coronary
syndrome. BRAVO level (10-B-1) applies to patients under 35 with resolved pain. ALPHA (10-A-1)
is inappropriate for any chest pain complaint. The age threshold of 35 is a critical discriminator
in chest pain protocols because cardiac risk increases significantly at this point.
Question 8: An EMD receives a call from a non-English speaking caller. After connecting a
language line interpreter, the EMD notices the interpreter is summarizing rather than
interpreting verbatim. What is the appropriate action?
Answers 2026
IAED EMD V14 Certification Practice Exam
Section 1: The 6 Pillars of EMD & Core Concepts (Questions 1-8)
Question 1: During a call, a caller reports that her husband "isn't breathing right" and makes
gasping sounds every few seconds. The EMD recognizes this as agonal breathing. According to
MPDS V14 protocol, what is the immediate priority?
A. Complete the Case Entry Key Questions to determine the appropriate protocol B.
Immediately select Protocol 9: Cardiac/Respiratory Arrest/Death C. Ask if the patient has a
history of sleep apnea D. Provide instructions for the recovery position
Correct Answer: B
Explainer: Agonal breathing (the "Clamor") is characterized by gasping, gurgling, or snorting
respirations and indicates cardiac arrest. Per MPDS V14 Case Entry Rule 3, agonal breathing is
treated as "not breathing normally" requiring immediate selection of Protocol 9. The distractor
A is incorrect because completing all Case Entry questions delays critical intervention for a
patient in cardiac arrest; Protocol 9 must be selected immediately when agonal breathing is
identified.
Question 2: An EMD receives a call for a 16-year-old male who was stabbed in the abdomen
during an altercation. The patient is conscious and breathing normally. Which protocol should
be selected?
A. Protocol 4: Assault/Sexual Assault/Stun Gun B. Protocol 27: Stab/Gunshot/Penetrating
Trauma C. Protocol 30: Traumatic Injuries D. Protocol 21: Hemorrhage/Lacerations
Correct Answer: B
Explainer: MPDS V14 prioritizes mechanism of injury over injury presentation. Protocol 27
specifically addresses penetrating trauma (stab wounds, gunshot wounds). While Protocol 30
covers general trauma and Protocol 21 addresses bleeding, Protocol 27 is the correct choice
because penetrating trauma to the torso carries high risk for internal injury regardless of
external bleeding. Protocol 4 is incorrect as it focuses on the assault event rather than the
traumatic injury mechanism.
,Question 3: Which statement best describes the EMD's legal responsibility regarding pre-arrival
instructions?
A. EMDs are legally protected from all liability when following approved protocols B. EMDs must
provide instructions only if the caller agrees to accept them C. EMDs have a duty to act by
providing appropriate instructions based on protocol, but callers retain the right to refuse D.
EMDs should avoid giving medical advice to prevent malpractice claims
Correct Answer: C
Explainer: Under the 6 Pillars of EMD (Legal Issues), EMDs have a duty to provide appropriate
pre-arrival instructions based on approved protocols. However, callers maintain autonomy and
may refuse instructions. The Good Samaritan doctrine and protocol adherence generally
provide legal protection, but this is not absolute immunity (making A incorrect). Option D
contradicts the fundamental EMD role of providing life-saving instructions.
Question 4: A caller reports a 5-year-old child who swallowed an unknown number of her
grandmother's blood pressure pills 30 minutes ago. The child is currently conscious and alert.
Which determinant code applies?
A. 23-A-1 B. 23-B-1 C. 23-C-1 D. 23-D-1
Correct Answer: C
Explainer: Protocol 23 (Overdose/Poisoning/Ingestion) assigns determinant codes based on
consciousness and status. A conscious patient with ingestion of medication (especially
cardiovascular medications in a pediatric patient) receives a CHARLIE-level response (23-C-1)
due to the high risk of rapid deterioration. ALPHA (23-A-1) is for minor ingestions with no
symptoms, and BRAVO (23-B-1) typically involves unknown substances without immediate
symptoms in adults. DELTA requires unconsciousness or severe symptoms.
Question 5: According to MPDS V14, what is the definition of an "adult" for protocol purposes?
A. 12 years of age or older B. 15 years of age or older C. 16 years of age or older D. 18 years of
age or older
Correct Answer: B
Explainer: MPDS V14 defines age categories as: Infant (less than 1 year), Child (1-7 years), Adult
(15 years or older), and a specific category for patients 8-14 years (formerly "Young Adult" in
earlier versions, now handled within protocols). The 15-year threshold is critical because
, physiologically, patients 15+ are treated as adults for most medical emergencies, though
pregnancy protocols have different age considerations. Option A was used in earlier protocol
versions but was updated based on medical evidence.
Question 6: Which scenario demonstrates the principle of "Treat first, then interrogate"?
A. Obtaining a complete medical history before providing CPR instructions B. Starting
hemorrhage control instructions while asking about medication allergies C. Completing all Case
Entry questions before selecting any protocol D. Waiting for the caller to describe the scene
before dispatching units
Correct Answer: B
Explainer: "Treat first, then interrogate" is a fundamental EMD principle emphasizing immediate
intervention for life threats while gathering additional information simultaneously. In severe
hemorrhage, controlling bleeding takes precedence over detailed history-taking. Option A
violates this principle by delaying critical treatment. The Case Entry questions (C) must be
completed for appropriate protocol selection, but this occurs before treatment begins, not
delaying it.
Question 7: During CQI review, an EMD is found to have assigned a BRAVO-level response to a
45-year-old male with chest pain that occurred at rest and has now resolved. The patient has no
cardiac history. What is the appropriate determinant code?
A. 10-A-1 B. 10-B-1 C. 10-C-1 D. 10-D-1
Correct Answer: C
Explainer: Protocol 10 (Chest Pain) assigns CHARLIE-level (10-C-1) for chest pain in patients 35
years or older regardless of whether pain has resolved, due to the high risk of acute coronary
syndrome. BRAVO level (10-B-1) applies to patients under 35 with resolved pain. ALPHA (10-A-1)
is inappropriate for any chest pain complaint. The age threshold of 35 is a critical discriminator
in chest pain protocols because cardiac risk increases significantly at this point.
Question 8: An EMD receives a call from a non-English speaking caller. After connecting a
language line interpreter, the EMD notices the interpreter is summarizing rather than
interpreting verbatim. What is the appropriate action?
