NR 667 CEA WEEK 1 EXAM AND FINAL EXAM
Capstone Practicum and Intensive
Chamberlain University FNP Program
Final Examination 2026/2027
100 Questions | Verified Answers | Graded A+
Core Domains:
Cardiology | Endocrinology | Pulmonology | Gastroenterology
Infectious Disease | Pharmacology | Women's Health | Pediatrics
, NR 667 CEA Examination | Chamberlain University FNP
Abstract
This NR 667 CEA Week 1 Exam and Final Exam document for the 2026/2027 academic cycle reflects
the official Chamberlain University Family Nurse Practitioner Capstone Practicum and Intensive
course requirements. The examinations evaluate advanced practice competencies essential for FNP
graduation and certification readiness, including hypertension management per JNC8 guidelines,
heart failure treatment protocols, diabetes and chronic kidney disease management, first-line
pharmacologic therapies, antimicrobial stewardship, and comprehensive primary care across the
lifespan. This document contains 100 multiple-choice questions with verified answers covering
cardiology, endocrinology, pulmonology, gastroenterology, infectious disease, pharmacology, women's
health, and pediatrics.
Keywords: FNP, Nurse Practitioner, Chamberlain University, JNC8, ADA Guidelines, Cardiology,
Pharmacology, Primary Care, Evidence-Based Practice
Introduction
The NR 667 Capstone Practicum and Intensive course represents the culminating clinical experience
in the Family Nurse Practitioner program at Chamberlain University. This comprehensive
examination assesses the graduate student's ability to integrate advanced pathophysiology,
pharmacotherapeutics, and health assessment knowledge into evidence-based clinical decision-
making. The questions presented align with national certification examination content and reflect
current clinical practice guidelines from organizations including ACC/AHA, ADA, GOLD, GINA, and
IDSA.
Each question has been developed to evaluate clinical reasoning, diagnostic accuracy, pharmacologic
management, and safe prescribing principles essential for entry-level FNP practice. The rationales
provided reinforce guideline-based management, differential diagnosis considerations, and evidence-
based treatment selection.
Examination Questions
1. According to JNC8 guidelines, the target blood pressure for a 65-year-old patient with
diabetes mellitus should be:
A. Less than 130/80 mmHg
B. Less than 140/90 mmHg
C. Less than 150/90 mmHg
D. Less than 120/80 mmHg
Rationale: JNC8 guidelines recommend a target blood pressure of less than 140/90 mmHg
for patients with diabetes mellitus and chronic kidney disease. For patients aged 60 years or
older without diabetes or CKD, the target is less than 150/90 mmHg. ACC/AHA 2017
guidelines are more aggressive, but JNC8 remains the reference for this examination.
2. A 55-year-old patient with newly diagnosed hypertension has a blood pressure of
148/94 mmHg and no comorbidities. According to JNC8, first-line antihypertensive
therapy includes all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Thiazide-type diuretic
B. ACE inhibitor
C. Calcium channel blocker
D. Beta-blocker
Page 2
, NR 667 CEA Examination | Chamberlain University FNP
Rationale: JNC8 recommends thiazide-type diuretics, ACE inhibitors, ARBs, or calcium
channel blockers as first-line therapy for non-black patients. Beta-blockers are not
recommended as first-line therapy in JNC8 guidelines because they are less effective than
other agents in reducing stroke risk.
3. A patient with heart failure with reduced ejection fraction (HFrEF) should be started
on which combination of medications for guideline-directed medical therapy?
A. ACE inhibitor, beta-blocker, and diuretic only
B. ACE inhibitor/ARB/ARNI, beta-blocker, MRA, and SGLT2 inhibitor
C. Calcium channel blocker and diuretic
D. Digoxin and diuretic only
Rationale: Guideline-directed medical therapy for HFrEF includes four pillars: ACE
inhibitor/ARB/ARNI (sacubitril/valsartan preferred), evidence-based beta-blocker
(carvedilol, metoprolol succinate, bisoprolol), mineralocorticoid receptor antagonist
(spironolactone, eplerenone), and SGLT2 inhibitor (dapagliflozin, empagliflozin).
4. A patient taking an ACE inhibitor develops a dry, nonproductive cough. The most
appropriate action is to:
A. Add a cough suppressant
B. Switch to an angiotensin receptor blocker (ARB)
C. Discontinue all antihypertensive medications
D. Reduce the ACE inhibitor dose by 50%
Rationale: A dry cough occurs in up to 20% of patients on ACE inhibitors due to bradykinin
accumulation. The appropriate action is to switch to an ARB, which provides similar
cardiovascular benefits without the cough side effect. ARBs do not significantly affect
bradykinin metabolism.
5. According to the 2018 ACC/AHA cholesterol guidelines, high-intensity statin therapy
is recommended for patients:
A. With LDL cholesterol ≥ 100 mg/dL
B. Age 40-75 with diabetes and LDL 70-189 mg/dL
C. With clinical ASCVD to reduce LDL by ≥50%
D. All adults over age 50
Rationale: High-intensity statin therapy is recommended for patients with clinical
atherosclerotic cardiovascular disease (ASCVD) to achieve LDL reduction of ≥50%. For
patients with diabetes aged 40-75, the intensity depends on additional risk factors.
Treatment is based on risk stratification, not solely on LDL levels.
6. A patient with atrial fibrillation has a CHA₂DS₂-VASc score of 3. The most
appropriate anticoagulation recommendation is:
A. Aspirin 81 mg daily
B. Aspirin 325 mg daily
C. Oral anticoagulation with warfarin or DOAC
D. No antithrombotic therapy needed
Rationale: A CHA₂DS₂-VASc score of 2 or more in men or 3 or more in women indicates a
need for oral anticoagulation. Options include warfarin (INR 2-3) or direct oral
anticoagulants (apixaban, rivaroxaban, dabigatran, edoxaban). Aspirin monotherapy is no
longer recommended for stroke prevention in atrial fibrillation.
7. A patient with stable ischemic heart disease requires additional antianginal therapy
despite being on a beta-blocker. The preferred second-line agent is:
Page 3
Capstone Practicum and Intensive
Chamberlain University FNP Program
Final Examination 2026/2027
100 Questions | Verified Answers | Graded A+
Core Domains:
Cardiology | Endocrinology | Pulmonology | Gastroenterology
Infectious Disease | Pharmacology | Women's Health | Pediatrics
, NR 667 CEA Examination | Chamberlain University FNP
Abstract
This NR 667 CEA Week 1 Exam and Final Exam document for the 2026/2027 academic cycle reflects
the official Chamberlain University Family Nurse Practitioner Capstone Practicum and Intensive
course requirements. The examinations evaluate advanced practice competencies essential for FNP
graduation and certification readiness, including hypertension management per JNC8 guidelines,
heart failure treatment protocols, diabetes and chronic kidney disease management, first-line
pharmacologic therapies, antimicrobial stewardship, and comprehensive primary care across the
lifespan. This document contains 100 multiple-choice questions with verified answers covering
cardiology, endocrinology, pulmonology, gastroenterology, infectious disease, pharmacology, women's
health, and pediatrics.
Keywords: FNP, Nurse Practitioner, Chamberlain University, JNC8, ADA Guidelines, Cardiology,
Pharmacology, Primary Care, Evidence-Based Practice
Introduction
The NR 667 Capstone Practicum and Intensive course represents the culminating clinical experience
in the Family Nurse Practitioner program at Chamberlain University. This comprehensive
examination assesses the graduate student's ability to integrate advanced pathophysiology,
pharmacotherapeutics, and health assessment knowledge into evidence-based clinical decision-
making. The questions presented align with national certification examination content and reflect
current clinical practice guidelines from organizations including ACC/AHA, ADA, GOLD, GINA, and
IDSA.
Each question has been developed to evaluate clinical reasoning, diagnostic accuracy, pharmacologic
management, and safe prescribing principles essential for entry-level FNP practice. The rationales
provided reinforce guideline-based management, differential diagnosis considerations, and evidence-
based treatment selection.
Examination Questions
1. According to JNC8 guidelines, the target blood pressure for a 65-year-old patient with
diabetes mellitus should be:
A. Less than 130/80 mmHg
B. Less than 140/90 mmHg
C. Less than 150/90 mmHg
D. Less than 120/80 mmHg
Rationale: JNC8 guidelines recommend a target blood pressure of less than 140/90 mmHg
for patients with diabetes mellitus and chronic kidney disease. For patients aged 60 years or
older without diabetes or CKD, the target is less than 150/90 mmHg. ACC/AHA 2017
guidelines are more aggressive, but JNC8 remains the reference for this examination.
2. A 55-year-old patient with newly diagnosed hypertension has a blood pressure of
148/94 mmHg and no comorbidities. According to JNC8, first-line antihypertensive
therapy includes all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Thiazide-type diuretic
B. ACE inhibitor
C. Calcium channel blocker
D. Beta-blocker
Page 2
, NR 667 CEA Examination | Chamberlain University FNP
Rationale: JNC8 recommends thiazide-type diuretics, ACE inhibitors, ARBs, or calcium
channel blockers as first-line therapy for non-black patients. Beta-blockers are not
recommended as first-line therapy in JNC8 guidelines because they are less effective than
other agents in reducing stroke risk.
3. A patient with heart failure with reduced ejection fraction (HFrEF) should be started
on which combination of medications for guideline-directed medical therapy?
A. ACE inhibitor, beta-blocker, and diuretic only
B. ACE inhibitor/ARB/ARNI, beta-blocker, MRA, and SGLT2 inhibitor
C. Calcium channel blocker and diuretic
D. Digoxin and diuretic only
Rationale: Guideline-directed medical therapy for HFrEF includes four pillars: ACE
inhibitor/ARB/ARNI (sacubitril/valsartan preferred), evidence-based beta-blocker
(carvedilol, metoprolol succinate, bisoprolol), mineralocorticoid receptor antagonist
(spironolactone, eplerenone), and SGLT2 inhibitor (dapagliflozin, empagliflozin).
4. A patient taking an ACE inhibitor develops a dry, nonproductive cough. The most
appropriate action is to:
A. Add a cough suppressant
B. Switch to an angiotensin receptor blocker (ARB)
C. Discontinue all antihypertensive medications
D. Reduce the ACE inhibitor dose by 50%
Rationale: A dry cough occurs in up to 20% of patients on ACE inhibitors due to bradykinin
accumulation. The appropriate action is to switch to an ARB, which provides similar
cardiovascular benefits without the cough side effect. ARBs do not significantly affect
bradykinin metabolism.
5. According to the 2018 ACC/AHA cholesterol guidelines, high-intensity statin therapy
is recommended for patients:
A. With LDL cholesterol ≥ 100 mg/dL
B. Age 40-75 with diabetes and LDL 70-189 mg/dL
C. With clinical ASCVD to reduce LDL by ≥50%
D. All adults over age 50
Rationale: High-intensity statin therapy is recommended for patients with clinical
atherosclerotic cardiovascular disease (ASCVD) to achieve LDL reduction of ≥50%. For
patients with diabetes aged 40-75, the intensity depends on additional risk factors.
Treatment is based on risk stratification, not solely on LDL levels.
6. A patient with atrial fibrillation has a CHA₂DS₂-VASc score of 3. The most
appropriate anticoagulation recommendation is:
A. Aspirin 81 mg daily
B. Aspirin 325 mg daily
C. Oral anticoagulation with warfarin or DOAC
D. No antithrombotic therapy needed
Rationale: A CHA₂DS₂-VASc score of 2 or more in men or 3 or more in women indicates a
need for oral anticoagulation. Options include warfarin (INR 2-3) or direct oral
anticoagulants (apixaban, rivaroxaban, dabigatran, edoxaban). Aspirin monotherapy is no
longer recommended for stroke prevention in atrial fibrillation.
7. A patient with stable ischemic heart disease requires additional antianginal therapy
despite being on a beta-blocker. The preferred second-line agent is:
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