NURS 5432 Family I FNP 1 ACTUAL
EXAM 2026 | Midterm Exam Review
Guide | University of Texas at
Arlington | Latest Update | Verified
Q&A | Pass Guaranteed - A+ Graded
DOMAIN 1: FOUNDATIONS OF PRIMARY CARE AND HEALTH
PROMOTION (25 Questions)
Q1: A 45-year-old patient with no significant past medical history presents for a routine health
maintenance visit. According to USPSTF Grade A and B recommendations, which of the
following screenings should be offered?
A. Lung cancer screening with low-dose CT
B. Colorectal cancer screening [CORRECT]
C. Prostate cancer screening with PSA
D. Diabetes screening
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: USPSTF recommends colorectal cancer screening for adults aged 45-75 years
(Grade A). Lung cancer screening (A) is recommended for adults aged 50-80 with a 20
pack-year smoking history (Grade B), not applicable without stated risk factors. Prostate
cancer screening (C) receives a Grade C recommendation (not recommended for men of any
age). Diabetes screening (D) is recommended for adults aged 35-70 with overweight/obesity
(Grade B), but BMI status is not provided in this scenario.
UTA Note: Know your Grade A and B recommendations cold—USPSTF heavily tested on
midterm.
,Q2: A 6-month-old infant is seen for a well-child visit. The parent asks which developmental
milestones are expected at this age. The nurse practitioner correctly identifies:
A. Sits without support, transfers objects hand to hand, babbles [CORRECT]
B. Pulls to stand, waves bye-bye, says "mama" and "dada"
C. Rolls front to back, reaches for objects, coos
D. Walks independently, uses 5-10 words, follows simple commands
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: At 6 months, gross motor milestones include sitting without support; fine motor
skills include transferring objects between hands; language development includes
reduplicated babbling. Option B describes 9-month milestones. Option C describes 4-month
milestones. Option D describes 12-month milestones.
Q3: A nurse practitioner is implementing the Patient-Centered Medical Home (PCMH) model
in a family practice setting. Which core principle is being demonstrated when the NP
coordinates care with a cardiologist, endocrinologist, and home health agency for a patient
with multiple chronic conditions?
A. First contact accessibility
B. Comprehensive whole-person care
C. Coordinated care across settings [CORRECT]
D. Continuity over time
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The PCMH model emphasizes five core principles: first contact accessibility
(timely access to care), comprehensiveness (whole-person care), coordination (integration
across specialties and settings), continuity (ongoing relationship), and quality/safety.
Coordinating with multiple specialists and services exemplifies the coordination principle.
Q4: A 28-year-old patient with limited health literacy is newly diagnosed with type 2 diabetes.
The nurse practitioner uses the "teach-back" method during medication counseling. This
technique primarily addresses which health communication principle?
A. Cultural competence
,B. Health literacy universal precautions [CORRECT]
C. Motivational interviewing
D. Shared decision-making
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The teach-back method is a health literacy universal precaution—assuming all
patients may have difficulty understanding health information. It involves asking patients to
explain information in their own words to confirm understanding. This differs from
motivational interviewing (behavior change counseling) or shared decision-making
(collaborative treatment decisions).
Q5: During a well-child visit, a nurse practitioner uses motivational interviewing to address a
parent's concern about their toddler's excessive screen time. Which statement demonstrates
the "OARS" technique of reflective listening?
A. "You should limit screen time to 1 hour per day according to AAP guidelines."
B. "It sounds like you're worried about how screen time affects your child's development.
[CORRECT]
C. "What changes are you willing to make to reduce screen time?"
D. "Screen time is associated with delayed language development and obesity."
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: OARS stands for Open-ended questions, Affirmations, Reflective listening, and
Summarizing. Reflective listening involves paraphrasing the patient's concerns to
demonstrate understanding. Option B reflects the parent's underlying concern. Option A is
directive advice, Option C is an open-ended question, and Option D is providing information.
Q6: A nurse practitioner is conducting a periodic health examination for a 55-year-old woman.
According to USPSTF recommendations, which of the following services has a Grade A or B
recommendation? (Select all that apply)
A. Annual low-dose CT for lung cancer screening [CORRECT] (if 20 pack-year smoking
history)
B. Blood pressure screening [CORRECT]
C. Depression screening [CORRECT]
, D. Vitamin D supplementation to prevent falls
E. Aspirin primary prevention for cardiovascular disease
F. Colorectal cancer screening [CORRECT]
Correct Answers: A, B, C, F (with appropriate risk factors)
Rationale: Blood pressure screening (B) and depression screening (C) are Grade A
recommendations for all adults. Colorectal cancer screening (F) is Grade A for ages 45-75.
Lung cancer screening (A) is Grade B for ages 50-80 with 20 pack-year history. Vitamin D
supplementation (D) receives Grade D (not recommended). Aspirin primary prevention (E) is
Grade C (not recommended for bleeding risk).
Q7: A nurse practitioner is evaluating social determinants of health for a pediatric patient.
Which factors are included in the Healthy People 2030 social determinants framework?
(Select all that apply)
A. Economic stability [CORRECT]
B. Education access and quality [CORRECT]
C. Healthcare access and quality [CORRECT]
D. Neighborhood and built environment [CORRECT]
E. Genetic predisposition
F. Social and community context [CORRECT]
Correct Answers: A, B, C, D, F
Rationale: Healthy People 2030 identifies five domains of social determinants of health:
economic stability, education access/quality, healthcare access/quality, neighborhood/built
environment, and social/community context. Genetic predisposition (E) represents biological
determinants, not social determinants.
Q8: A nurse practitioner is preparing to administer immunizations to a 2-month-old infant.
According to the CDC immunization schedule, which vaccines are routinely recommended at
this visit? (Select all that apply)
A. Hepatitis B (birth dose already given; 2-month dose due) [CORRECT]
B. DTaP (first dose) [CORRECT]
EXAM 2026 | Midterm Exam Review
Guide | University of Texas at
Arlington | Latest Update | Verified
Q&A | Pass Guaranteed - A+ Graded
DOMAIN 1: FOUNDATIONS OF PRIMARY CARE AND HEALTH
PROMOTION (25 Questions)
Q1: A 45-year-old patient with no significant past medical history presents for a routine health
maintenance visit. According to USPSTF Grade A and B recommendations, which of the
following screenings should be offered?
A. Lung cancer screening with low-dose CT
B. Colorectal cancer screening [CORRECT]
C. Prostate cancer screening with PSA
D. Diabetes screening
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: USPSTF recommends colorectal cancer screening for adults aged 45-75 years
(Grade A). Lung cancer screening (A) is recommended for adults aged 50-80 with a 20
pack-year smoking history (Grade B), not applicable without stated risk factors. Prostate
cancer screening (C) receives a Grade C recommendation (not recommended for men of any
age). Diabetes screening (D) is recommended for adults aged 35-70 with overweight/obesity
(Grade B), but BMI status is not provided in this scenario.
UTA Note: Know your Grade A and B recommendations cold—USPSTF heavily tested on
midterm.
,Q2: A 6-month-old infant is seen for a well-child visit. The parent asks which developmental
milestones are expected at this age. The nurse practitioner correctly identifies:
A. Sits without support, transfers objects hand to hand, babbles [CORRECT]
B. Pulls to stand, waves bye-bye, says "mama" and "dada"
C. Rolls front to back, reaches for objects, coos
D. Walks independently, uses 5-10 words, follows simple commands
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: At 6 months, gross motor milestones include sitting without support; fine motor
skills include transferring objects between hands; language development includes
reduplicated babbling. Option B describes 9-month milestones. Option C describes 4-month
milestones. Option D describes 12-month milestones.
Q3: A nurse practitioner is implementing the Patient-Centered Medical Home (PCMH) model
in a family practice setting. Which core principle is being demonstrated when the NP
coordinates care with a cardiologist, endocrinologist, and home health agency for a patient
with multiple chronic conditions?
A. First contact accessibility
B. Comprehensive whole-person care
C. Coordinated care across settings [CORRECT]
D. Continuity over time
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The PCMH model emphasizes five core principles: first contact accessibility
(timely access to care), comprehensiveness (whole-person care), coordination (integration
across specialties and settings), continuity (ongoing relationship), and quality/safety.
Coordinating with multiple specialists and services exemplifies the coordination principle.
Q4: A 28-year-old patient with limited health literacy is newly diagnosed with type 2 diabetes.
The nurse practitioner uses the "teach-back" method during medication counseling. This
technique primarily addresses which health communication principle?
A. Cultural competence
,B. Health literacy universal precautions [CORRECT]
C. Motivational interviewing
D. Shared decision-making
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The teach-back method is a health literacy universal precaution—assuming all
patients may have difficulty understanding health information. It involves asking patients to
explain information in their own words to confirm understanding. This differs from
motivational interviewing (behavior change counseling) or shared decision-making
(collaborative treatment decisions).
Q5: During a well-child visit, a nurse practitioner uses motivational interviewing to address a
parent's concern about their toddler's excessive screen time. Which statement demonstrates
the "OARS" technique of reflective listening?
A. "You should limit screen time to 1 hour per day according to AAP guidelines."
B. "It sounds like you're worried about how screen time affects your child's development.
[CORRECT]
C. "What changes are you willing to make to reduce screen time?"
D. "Screen time is associated with delayed language development and obesity."
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: OARS stands for Open-ended questions, Affirmations, Reflective listening, and
Summarizing. Reflective listening involves paraphrasing the patient's concerns to
demonstrate understanding. Option B reflects the parent's underlying concern. Option A is
directive advice, Option C is an open-ended question, and Option D is providing information.
Q6: A nurse practitioner is conducting a periodic health examination for a 55-year-old woman.
According to USPSTF recommendations, which of the following services has a Grade A or B
recommendation? (Select all that apply)
A. Annual low-dose CT for lung cancer screening [CORRECT] (if 20 pack-year smoking
history)
B. Blood pressure screening [CORRECT]
C. Depression screening [CORRECT]
, D. Vitamin D supplementation to prevent falls
E. Aspirin primary prevention for cardiovascular disease
F. Colorectal cancer screening [CORRECT]
Correct Answers: A, B, C, F (with appropriate risk factors)
Rationale: Blood pressure screening (B) and depression screening (C) are Grade A
recommendations for all adults. Colorectal cancer screening (F) is Grade A for ages 45-75.
Lung cancer screening (A) is Grade B for ages 50-80 with 20 pack-year history. Vitamin D
supplementation (D) receives Grade D (not recommended). Aspirin primary prevention (E) is
Grade C (not recommended for bleeding risk).
Q7: A nurse practitioner is evaluating social determinants of health for a pediatric patient.
Which factors are included in the Healthy People 2030 social determinants framework?
(Select all that apply)
A. Economic stability [CORRECT]
B. Education access and quality [CORRECT]
C. Healthcare access and quality [CORRECT]
D. Neighborhood and built environment [CORRECT]
E. Genetic predisposition
F. Social and community context [CORRECT]
Correct Answers: A, B, C, D, F
Rationale: Healthy People 2030 identifies five domains of social determinants of health:
economic stability, education access/quality, healthcare access/quality, neighborhood/built
environment, and social/community context. Genetic predisposition (E) represents biological
determinants, not social determinants.
Q8: A nurse practitioner is preparing to administer immunizations to a 2-month-old infant.
According to the CDC immunization schedule, which vaccines are routinely recommended at
this visit? (Select all that apply)
A. Hepatitis B (birth dose already given; 2-month dose due) [CORRECT]
B. DTaP (first dose) [CORRECT]
