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NURS 5432 Family I FNP 1 ACTUAL EXAM 2026 | Final Exam Review Guide | University of Texas at Arlington | Latest Update | Verified Q&A | Pass Guaranteed - A+ Graded

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Excel in your University of Texas at Arlington NURS 5432 Family I (FNP 1) final exam with this 2026 complete actual review guide in the latest update. Covers essential topics including health promotion and disease prevention across the lifespan, management of common acute and chronic conditions, diagnostic reasoning and clinical decision-making, pharmacotherapeutics for family practice, and evidence-based clinical guidelines. Each question includes detailed rationales and elaborated solutions to reinforce advanced practice nursing concepts. Backed by our Pass Guarantee. Download now.

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NURS 5432 Family I FNP 1 ACTUAL
EXAM 2026 | Final Exam Review Guide |
University of Texas at Arlington | Latest
Update | Verified Q&A | Pass
Guaranteed - A+ Graded

DOMAIN 1: PEDIATRIC AND ADOLESCENT PRIMARY CARE
(45 Questions)
Growth and Development Milestones

Q1: A 2-year-old child is brought to the clinic for a well-child visit. The parent reports that the
child uses a few single words, walks independently, and enjoys playing with a ball. The child
does not yet speak in two-word phrases. According to developmental milestones, which
statement is most accurate?

A. This child is developmentally delayed and requires early intervention referral

B. The child is meeting expected milestones for a 2-year-old

C. The child has expressive language delay but other milestones are appropriate [CORRECT]

D. The child should be evaluated for autism spectrum disorder

Rationale: By 24 months, children typically use two- to three-word phrases. Single-word
speech at 2 years represents expressive language delay, though the child is meeting gross
motor (walking independently) and fine motor/play milestones. This warrants further
assessment and consideration of early intervention referral. The child is not meeting all
milestones (A, B). Autism evaluation (D) would be considered if social communication
deficits were present.

UTA Note: Language delays at 24 months require referral to Early Childhood Intervention
(ECI) services in Texas. Monitor for red flags: no babbling by 12 months, no words by 16
months, no two-word phrases by 24 months.

,Q2: During a 6-month well-child visit, which developmental milestones would be expected?
Select all that apply.

A. Rolls from prone to supine and supine to prone [CORRECT]

B. Babbles with consonant sounds (ba, da, ma) [CORRECT]

C. Pulls to stand

D. Transfers objects from hand to hand [CORRECT]

E. Says "mama" or "dada" specifically

F. Sits without support [CORRECT]

Rationale: At 6 months, infants typically roll both ways, babble with consonants, transfer
objects between hands, and sit without support. Pulling to stand (C) occurs at 9 months.
Saying "mama/dada" specifically (E) occurs at 9-12 months.


Q3: A mother brings her 4-month-old infant for a well-child visit. She asks when her baby will
likely begin to sit without support. The FNP responds:

A. By 5 months of age

B. By 6 months of age [CORRECT]

C. By 8 months of age

D. By 4 months of age

Rationale: Most infants achieve independent sitting without support by 6 months of age. At 4
months, infants typically roll and push up on arms; by 8 months, they can sit well and begin to
crawl.


Q4: Which developmental screening tool is recommended by the AAP for routine surveillance
at the 18-month and 24-month well-child visits specifically for autism spectrum disorder?

A. Denver II Developmental Screening Test

B. Ages and Stages Questionnaire (ASQ-3)

C. Modified Checklist for Autism in Toddlers (M-CHAT-R/F) [CORRECT]

D. Bayley Scales of Infant Development

,Rationale: The AAP recommends autism-specific screening using the M-CHAT-R/F (Modified
Checklist for Autism in Toddlers, Revised with Follow-up) at 18 and 24 months. The ASQ-3 is
a general developmental screener used at multiple ages. Denver II is outdated. Bayley is a
diagnostic tool, not a screening instrument.


Q5: A 15-month-old toddler is not yet walking independently but can cruise along furniture and
stand independently. The parents are concerned. What is the most appropriate response?

A. Immediate referral to physical therapy is indicated

B. This is within normal limits; most children walk by 15 months [CORRECT]

C. This indicates gross motor delay requiring further evaluation

D. The child should have brain imaging to rule out cerebral palsy

Rationale: Independent walking typically occurs between 12-15 months. Cruising and standing
independently at 15 months is within normal limits. Referral would be indicated if the child is
not walking by 18 months or has other concerning findings.


Immunizations

Q6: According to the CDC and AAP immunization schedule, which vaccines are
recommended for administration at the 12-15 month well-child visit? Select all that apply.

A. Varicella (chickenpox) [CORRECT]

B. MMR (measles, mumps, rubella) [CORRECT]

C. Hepatitis B

D. Hib (Haemophilus influenzae type b) [CORRECT]

E. PCV13 (pneumococcal conjugate) [CORRECT]

F. HPV (human papillomavirus)

Rationale: At 12-15 months, recommended vaccines include MMR, varicella, Hib (final dose),
and PCV13 (final dose). Hepatitis B (C) is given at birth, 1-2 months, and 6-18 months. HPV (F)
begins at age 9-12 years. The 12-15 month visit is also when the fourth dose of DTaP is given.

, Q7: An 11-year-old patient presents for a well-child visit. According to the current CDC
immunization schedule, which vaccines are routinely recommended at this age? Select all
that apply.

A. Tdap (tetanus, diphtheria, acellular pertussis) [CORRECT]

B. HPV (human papillomavirus) - first dose [CORRECT]

C. Meningococcal conjugate (MenACWY) [CORRECT]

D. Varicella - second dose if not previously given

E. MMR - second dose if not previously given

F. Hepatitis A - second dose if series started

Rationale: At age 11-12, routine vaccines include Tdap, first dose of HPV (2-dose series if
starting before 15th birthday), and MenACWY. Catch-up doses for varicella and MMR are given
earlier if needed (typically 4-6 years). Hepatitis A second dose is given 6 months after first
dose, regardless of age.


Q8: A 2-month-old infant presents for a well-child visit. Which vaccines should be
administered today according to the routine immunization schedule? Select all that apply.

A. DTaP (diphtheria, tetanus, acellular pertussis) [CORRECT]

B. IPV (inactivated poliovirus) [CORRECT]

C. Hib (Haemophilus influenzae type b) [CORRECT]

D. PCV13 (pneumococcal conjugate) [CORRECT]

E. Rotavirus [CORRECT]

F. Hepatitis B [CORRECT]

Rationale: At 2 months, the routine vaccines are DTaP, IPV, Hib, PCV13, rotavirus, and
Hepatitis B (second dose). This is the first dose for all except Hepatitis B, which is given at
birth.


Q9: A parent refuses the rotavirus vaccine for her 2-month-old infant, stating she is
breastfeeding exclusively and the baby won't be in daycare. What is the most appropriate
response?

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