Module 3: BIOD 103/ BIOD103 (NEW 2026/ 2027 Update) Medical Terminology | Questions & Answers| Grade A| 100% Correct (Accurate Solutions)- Portage Learning

…..DLDD Module 3: BIOD 103/ BIOD103 (NEW 2026/ 2027 Update) Medical Terminology | Questions & Answers| Grade A| 100% Correct (Accurate Solutions)- Portage Learning Q. What is the primary organ of the integumentary system? ANSWER the skin Q. Name the four functions of the skin ANSWER The four functions of the skin are protection, sensation, secretion, and temperature regulation Q. What are the 5 layers of the epidermis? ANSWER stratum germinativum, stratum spinosum, stratum granulosum, stratum lucidum, and stratum corneum Q. What are the two layers of the skin? ANSWER epidermis and dermis Q. What is the protein that makes up the majority of hair and nails? ANSWER keratin Q. What gives the skin its pigment? ANSWER melanin Q. What are Langerhans cells, and what is their function? ANSWER Langerhans cells are cells of the immune system that are found in the stratum spinosum of the epidermis. Their function is to protect the body from invading microorganisms Q. What accessory structures of the integumentary system are found in the dermis? ANSWER Hair, sebaceous glands, and sweat glands Q. What are the parts of the hair? Where can hair be found? What is the function of the arrector pili muscle? ANSWER The hair is made up of the root growing out of the hair follicle and the shaft which is the visible portion of the hair. Hair can be found all over the body except for the lips, palms and soles, and the penis. Q. The function of the arrector pili muscle ANSWER is to contract in reaction to cold or an emotion to form goosebumps Q. Where are nails found? What are they made of? What is the function of the nail? What are the sections of the nail? What is the eponychium? What is the lunula? ANSWER Nails are found on the ends of the fingers and toes. They are made of keratin. The function of the nail is for protection for the tips of the fingers and toes. Q. The sections of the nail are the root and the nail bed. ANSWER The eponychium is a fold of epithelial tissue over the base of the nail body. The lunula is the crescent-shaped area at the base of the nail body that is lighter than the rest of the nail Q. What are sebaceous glands? What is their function? ANSWER Sebaceous glands are oil-secreting glands in the skin. Their function is to secrete sebum to lubricate the hair and the nails Q. What is the function of sweat glands? What are the two types of sweat glands found in the body? What are the main differences between these two glands? ANSWER Sweat functions to cool the body through evaporation of moisture. The two types of sweat glands found in the body are the merocrine and apocrine sweat glands. Q. Merocrine sweat glands are located throughout the body and release sweat directly to the skin's surface. ANSWER They are most prevalent on the soles of the feet and palms of the hands. Q. Apocrine sweat glands are located in the axillae, around the nipples, and in the groin. ANSWER They begin to secrete sweat during puberty and they secrete sweat into the hair follicles located in those areas Q. Use the combining form aden/o, meaning gland, and the suffixes a. Surgical removal of a gland b. Inflammation of a gland c. Tumor in a gland d. Disease of a gland e. Enlarged gland ANSWER A) adenectomy B) adenitis C) adenoma D) adenopathy E) adenomegaly Q. Use the suffix -derma, meaning a skin condition, and the combining forms a. Hard skin condition b. Yellow skin condition c. Dry skin condition d. Thick skin condition e. Red skin condition f. White skin condition ANSWER A) scleroderma B) xanthoderma C) xeroderma D) pachyderma E) erythroderma F) leukoderma Q. Use the combining form dermat/o, meaning skin, and the suffixes a. Skin inflammation b. Study of the skin c. One who studies the skin d. Surgical repair of the skin e. Abnormal skin fungus condition f. Hardened skin condition ANSWER A) Dermatitis B) Dermatology C) Dermatologist D) Dermatoplasty E) Dermatomycosis F) Dermatosclerosis Q. Use the combining form hidr/o, meaning sweat, and the suffixes a. Abnormal sweating condition b. Abnormal condition with a lack of sweating c. Sweat gland inflammation d. Abnormal condition of excessive sweating ANSWER A) Hidrosis B) Anhidrosis C) Hidradenosis D) Hyperhidrosis Q. Use the combining form lip/o, meaning fat, and the suffixes a. Surgical removal of fat b. Fat tumor c. Fat cell ANSWER A) Lipectomy B) Lipoma C) Lipocyte Use the combining form onch/o, meaning nail, the suffixes a. Surgical removal of a nail b. Abnormal softening of a nail c. Abnormal nail fungus condition d. Nail eating or biting e. Excessive nail growth condition A) Onchectomy B) Onchomalacia C) Onchomycosis D) Onchophagia E) Hyperonchyia What are the three types of skin cancer? Which types are more likely to metastasize? Where do they originate? The three types of skin cancer are melanoma, basal cell carcinoma, and squamous cell carcinoma. Basal cell carcinoma and squamous cell carcinoma start in the epidermis. Melanoma starts in a melanocyte. Melanoma and squamous cell carcinoma are more likely to develop metastatic disease What are skin conditions that arise from infections from microorganisms? What are the microorganisms and are they viral, fungal, or bacteria? Can these infections be prevented with a vaccine? What are the skin manifestations of the infection? 1. Cellulitis: many microorganisms, bacterial, no vax, swelling and erythema 2. Herpes simplex: herpes viral type 1, viral, no vax, painful blisters around lips and nose 3. Herpes zoster (shingles): varicella zoster, viral, yes vax, painful blisters along nerve root 4. Impetigo: streptococcus or staphylococcus, bacterial, no vax, pustules and vesicles that rupture and crust 5. Tinea corporis: dermatophytes, fungal, no vax, scaling/discolored skin lesions that are itchy and appear as patches 6. Varicella zoster: varicella zoster, viral, yes vax, macules/papules/vesicles/crusts What are the different types of burns? What layers of the skin do they involve? A first-degree burn only affects the epidermis and results in erythema without blisters. A second-degree burn extends through the epidermis and into the dermis. This causes blisters to form and is also called a partial thickness burn. A third-degree burn is a full thickness burn and extends through the epidermis, dermis, and the underlying tissues Who is at risk for developing decubitus ulcers? Patients who are non-ambulatory and bedridden are at high risk for forming these ulcers What is the difference between acne and acne rosacea? Who is more likely to develop these conditions? Acne is more common in teenagers. It is the development of pustules and papules in the skin of the face and back. Adults can develop acne rosacea which is chronic acne. It is the development of tiny pimples and broken blood vessels on the cheeks and nose What are the two divisions of the skeleton? What general body regions do these divisions contain. The axial and appendicular skeleton are the two divisions of the skeleton. The axial skeleton contains the bones at the core of the body-the skull, spine, ribs, and sternum. The appendicular skeleton consists of the bones of the appendages of body, the shoulder girdle, arms, and hands, the pelvic girdle, legs, and feet Name the 5 classifications of bones based on shape and give an example of each. 1. Flat bone, examples: scapula, sternum, skull, parts of the pelvis 2. Long bones, examples: bones of the arms and legs-tibia and fibula, femur, humerus, ulna, radius 3. Short bones, examples: bones of the wrist and ankles 4. Irregular, examples: vertebrae, bones in the ear 5. Sutural, examples: bones located between the sutures of the skull Describe the functions of bones. Bones form the framework for the body for structure and movement, protect internal organs, store minerals such as calcium and phosphate, and serve as the place where blood cells are formed What are the accessory structures of the skeletal system? The tendons, ligaments, and cartilage What are the functions of muscles? Muscles enable the body to move from one place to another, produce heat, and maintain stability and posture How do the three parts of skeletal muscle interact with the bones and joints to create movement at the joint? Joints are formed where two or more bones come together. Skeletal muscles attach to the bones that form the joint and contract to create movement. The origin of the muscle is where the muscle starts, and it is fixed. The insertion of the muscle is where the muscle attaches to the moving bone. When the body of the muscle contracts, or shortens, the bone where the muscle is inserted will move at the joint. What are the three types of joints? Fibrous, cartilaginous, and synovial Define adduction. Adduction is moving a body part towards the midline What is the term for moving a body part away from the midline? In a circular motion? Abduction and circumduction Define flexion and extension. Flexion is bending a limb. Extension is straightening a flexed limb Use the combining form arthr/o, meaning joint, and the suffixes a. Procedure to withdraw fluid from a joint b. Joint fusion c. Joint inflammation d. Process of visually examining a joint e. Joint pain A) Arthrocentesis B) Arthrodesis C) Arthritis D) Arthroscopy E) Arthralgia Use the combining form chondr/o, meaning cartilage, and the suffixes a. Pertaining to cartilage b. Cartilage inflammation c. Surgical removal of cartilage d. Abnormal cartilage softening e. Surgical repair of cartilage A) Chrondral B) Chondritis C) Chondrectomy D) Chondromalacia E) Chondroplasty Use the combining form crani/o, meaning skull, the suffixes a. Pertaining to the skull b. Pertaining to within the skull c. Cutting into the skull d. Surgical repair of the skull e. Softening of the skull A) Cranial B) Intracranial C) Craniotomy D) Cranioplasty E) Craniomalacia Use the suffix -kinesia, meaning movement and the prefixes a. Slow movement b. Difficult or abnormal movement c. Excessive movement A) bradykinesia B) dyskinesia C) hyperkinesia The combining forms muscul/o and my/o both mean muscle. Use these combining forms and the suffixes a. Pertaining to a muscle b. Pertaining to within a muscle c. Muscle pain d. A record of muscle's electricity e. Muscle disease A) Muscular B) Intramuscular C) Myalgia D) Electromyogram E) Myopathy The combining form oste/o means bone. Create these terms: a. Bone pain b. Bone cell c. Producing bone d. Bone and cartilage inflammation e. Bone and bone marrow inflammation (The combining form myel/o means bone marrow) A) Ostealgia B) Osteocyte C) osteogenic D) Osteochondritis E) Osteomyelitis Describe the two types of arthritis. Rheumatoid arthritis is inflammation of the joints caused by the patient's own immune system. Osteoarthritis is inflammation of the joints caused by wear of the joints over time Define each of the following terms indicating inflammation in various parts of the body. a. Bursitis b. Tendinitis c. Fasciitis d. Myositis A) inflammation of the bursa B) inflammation of a tendon C) Inflammation of fascia D) Inflammation of the muscle Name and describe the 5 types of bone fractures? 1. Closed fractures do not involve a break in the skin 2. Open fractures do involve a break in the skin 3. Comminuted fracture is where the bone is shattered 4. Transverse fracture is where the shaft of a long bone is broken 5. Compression fracture is where two bones are pressed together What types of fractures are common in children? Greenstick and epiphyseal fractures are common in children Describe carpal tunnel syndrome. This is a syndrome of pain, soreness, tenderness, weakness, numbness, and tingling of the hand and wrist due to compression of the median nerve where it goes underneath a ligament that connects the wrist bones What is the difference between an arthrocentesis and an arthroscopy? An arthrocentesis is a procedure to remove fluid from a joint, and an arthroscopy is a surgical procedure to examine the inside of a joint with a camera What is the term for a repair of a joint? What joints are commonly surgically repaired due to the damage due to osteoarthritis? An arthroplasty is a surgical repair of a joint. It is common for the hips and knees to be repaired as a patient ages Which abnormal spine curve causes a "hunchback? Kyphosis Uric acid crystals form in the small joints of the hands and feet in what disease? Gout What is the term for a surgical fusion of the spine? Spondylosyndesis Define the following words found in italics. a. Osteomyelitis b. Wound culture c. Ulcer d. Pedal e. Percutaneous A) Inflammation of the bone and bone marrow. Oste/o = bone; mye = bone marrow; -itis = inflammation B) Sample of tissue sent to the laboratory for identification of bacteria C) An erosion of the skin through the epidermis, dermis, and into the deeper tissues D) Pertaining to the foot E) Pertaining to something that passes through the skin. Per- = through; cutane/o = skin; -ous = pertaining to. This patient was admitted with a left calcaneal ulcer. A) What type of ulcer developed on this patient's heel? B) What is another name for this condition? C) What condition(s) caused her to be at higher risk for these conditions? A) The patient developed a decubitus ulcer on her heel. B) This is also known as a pressure sore. C) The patient is non-ambulatory and would be at risk for obstructing the blood flow to her heel by laying in the same position for a long period of time. The patient also has a history of type 2 diabetes which can lead to peripheral vascular disease and poor blood flow to the lower extremities. Her nutritional status is also poor which can lead to difficulty in wound healing. Which layer of the skin contains the blood vessels and nerves? The dermis From a pathophysiologic standpoint, how did the patient develop osteomyelitis of her heel bone from this ulcer? An ulcer is an erosion through the epidermis, dermis, and underlying , which allowed the bacteria access to both the bloodstream and the subcutaneous tissue. This included the heel bone. Calcane/o is the combining form meaning the heel. Identify the specific area of the body by the following combining forms. a. Carp/o b. Fibul/o c. Ischi/o d. Phalang/o e. Spondyl/o A) wrist B) fibula, lower leg bone C) ischium, part of the pelvis D) Phalanges, fingers and toes E) Vertebrae, spine A) Define amputation. B) What are two common medical abbreviations associated with an amputation? A) An amputation is a surgical or traumatic removal of a limb or other projecting part of the body. B) AKA is an abbreviation that means above the knee amputation; BKA is an abbreviation that means below the knee amputation. Proteins that are synthesized by ribosomes may be further modified within which organelle? Golgi complex. How does the scanning electron microscope differ from the transmission electron microscope? The SEM yields a 3D image of the object being studied. Which of the following pairs is correctly matched? integrins−receptors Which strategy is the most effective for larger cells to have an effective surface area to volume ratio? having thin, finger-like projections Peroxisomes are found in large numbers in cells that synthesize, store, and degrade lipids, and one of their functions is to break down protein molecules. False The cellular structure indicated by the arrow in the accompanying figure is responsible for: protein synthesis What is the purpose of the cristae of the inner membrane of mitochondria? To increase surface area What protects a cell and may help keep other cells at a distance? glycocalyx Almost every vertebrate cell has a primary cilium, a single cilium on the cell surface that serves as a cellular antenna. True Which cellular structure is correctly matched to the role it plays within the cell? centrosome−cell division Cotransport systems directly provide energy for active transport of solutes. False The process by which the plasma membrane separates from the cell wall is called ______. plasmolysis When the net movement of water in and out a cell is zero, that solution is said to be isotonic. A patient who has had a severe hemorrhage accidentally receives a large transfusion of distilled water directly into a major blood vessel. What effect will this have on the patient? It will have serious, perhaps fatal consequences because the red blood cells could swell and burst. How do the phospholipids in vegetable oil differ from those of animal fat? The fatty acid tails bend. Once ligand molecules bind to receptors in coated pits of a plasma membrane, the next step of receptor-mediated endocytosis would be coated vesicle forms by endocytosis. In a lipid bilayer, __________ fatty acid tails face each other within the bilayer and form a region that excludes water. hydrophobic Plasmolysis occurs in plant cells when the soil or water contains low concentrations of salts or fertilizers. False Carrier proteins are also called ______. transporters Which cellular mechanism ejects products, such as hormones, by the fusion of a vesicle with the plasma membrane? Exocytosis Which list describes the correct sequence of events involved in cell signaling? Signal transmission, reception, signal transduction, response Barbiturates and benzodiazepine drugs bind to GABA receptors to open chloride channels, inhibit neural impulse, and induce tranquility. True Suppose that acetylcholine binds its receptor on the surface of a muscle cell. What happens next? A sodium gate opens. Which is an example of a second messenger? Cyclic AMP Which neurotransmitter opens ligand-gated sodium channels? Acetylcholine The outer part of a G protein-linked receptor binds to a(n) ____, and its inner part binds to a(n) ____. signaling molecule; G protein Scaffold proteins organize groups of intracellular signaling kinases into signaling complexes. True What is calmodulin? A calcium-binding protein When a signaling molecule binds to a G protein-linked receptor, the ligand-receptor complex associates with GDP protein and causes GDP to be replaced by GTP. __________________ False Phosphodiesterase catalyzes the conversion of cAMP to AMP. granular body within an organelle which consists of RNA and protein nucleolus large membranous sacs of plants and fungi vacuoles encloses an internal thylakoid membrane plastids membranous sacs in animals lysosome ribosomes stud its outer surface rough endoplasmic reticulum rodlike structures consisting of actin microfilaments Which of the following is necessary for a cell to maintain its function and growth? food What is a characteristic found in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells? plasma membrane Which of the following serves as a framework for the orderly distribution of chromosomes during cell division? mitotic spindle DNA is associated with certain proteins, forming a complex called: chromatin You isolate a cellular structure and determine that it is composed of α-tubulin and β-tubulin. Based on this evidence, you correctly identify this structure as a(n): microtubule The smooth ER is the primary site for the synthesis of proteins and cholesterol needed to make membranes. False What process halts the net movement of water from a hypotonic solution into a plant's cells and often provides the structural support to many plants? Turgor pressure How do gap junctions differ from desmosomes? A gap junction provides communication between cells. Which proteins are located on the inner or outer surface of the plasma membrane, usually bound to exposed regions of integral proteins by noncovalent interactions? Peripheral membrane proteins Although glucose molecules constantly diffuse into a red blood cell along their concentration gradient, equilibrium is never reached and a steep concentration gradient is continually maintained. What causes this? The rapid addition of a phosphate to the glucose molecules Biological membranes are one-dimensional fluids. False Mammalian red blood cells contain which type of membrane? Plasma membrane A person has a genetic disease that prevents the phospholipids in the plasma membrane of the white blood cells from freely fusing with the other membranes within the cell. How would this disease affect phagocytosis? The phagocytic vacuole would not fuse with the lysosome. What does an ABC transporter use to move larger ions and molecules across the cell membrane? ATP What is required for facilitated diffusion to take place? A transmembrane protein Ion channels are found in the plasma membranes of neurons and muscle cells. True What can happen when GABA binds to its receptor? Neural signaling is inhibited. The hydrolysis of GTP to GDP deactivates the ____. G protein In the phospholipase C signal transduction pathway, which pair of second messengers is produced? IP3 and DAG G protein-linked receptors are transmembrane proteins with a binding site for a signaling molecule outside the cell and a neuron component inside the cell. False What transmits information electrically and chemically? Neurons Which statement about G protein is false? One subunit binds ATP. Enzymes called proteases in the ER lumen catalyze folding of proteins into proper conformations. False A single cell in a smoker's lung has become cancerous. It doubles its DNA and divides much faster than a normal lung cell. The most likely change that would have caused this condition took place in the: nucleus What is the primary function of mitochondria? transformation of energy Mitochondria play an important role in cell necrosis. False Which statement about centrioles is false? They have a 9 + 2 arrangement of microtubules. The cis face of the Golgi complex is most directly involved in which process? Accepting vesicles from the ER Name the part of the cell outside the nucleus. Cytoplasm The accompanying image is the product of which type of microscope? scanning electron microscope In the sodium-potassium pump, sodium ion release causes the carrier protein to return to its original shape and releases two K+ ions into the cell. False Fluid that has a higher osmotic pressure than a cell is called ___________. hypertonic Since sodium-potassium pumps transport sodium ions out of a cell and potassium ions into a cell, what type of carrier proteins are they? Antiporters In the accompanying figure, what is the role of the structures between the membranes? They allow the transport of small molecules and ions between adjacent cells. Plasmodesmata of plant cells are functionally equivalent to the ____ of animal cells. gap junctions Most intracellular receptors are what type of protein? Transcription factors During enzyme-linked reception, signal molecules bind to two tyrosine kinase receptors. The receptor proteins move closer together in the plasma membrane and pair, forming a(n) ____. dimer Adenylyl cyclase catalyzes the reaction in which ATP is converted to cAMP. Under which of the following situations would receptor downregulation most likely occur? The concentration of a hormone is too high. You conduct an experiment in which you inactivate Ras proteins in fibroblast cells. Which of the following is the most immediate consequence of this procedure? The fibroblasts no longer synthesize DNA in response to growth factors. The process of receiving an incoming signal is known as _______. reception In the cAMP signal transduction pathway, a protein kinase is activated. What happens next? The protein kinase activates a cellular response. The outer membrane of the nuclear envelope is continuous with the membrane of the ____ and is usually covered with attached ribosomes. endoplasmic reticulum What is the microtubule arrangement of a flagellum or cilium? 9 + 2 arrangement Which one of these are the most convenient unit for measuring cells? micrometer What is found between the primary walls of adjacent cells which cause them to tightly adhere to one another? middle lamella A basal body anchors what part of a cell? flagellum The micrometer (μm) is the most convenient unit for measuring cells. True Why is it advantageous for cells to be small? A small cell has a small volume relative to surface area, which allows efficient transport through the plasma membrane. Groups of eight connexin molecules cluster to form a cylinder that spans the plasma membrane. False The term "fluid mosaic model" refers to the movement of lipids and integral proteins within the lipid bilayer. In cells that are constantly involved in secretion, an equivalent amount of membrane must be returned to the interior of the cell for each vesicle that fuses with the plasma membrane; if this does not occur, then what would happen? The cell surface will keep expanding. In cell membranes, cholesterol and glycoproteins are exposed to the extracellular surface for cell recognition and adhesion to other cells. False Which of the following is not a property of membranes? They inhibit the passage of materials. Phosphate comes from ATP. Enzyme-linked receptor Protein kinase sites are active. Enzyme-linked receptor Sodium ions enter the cell. Ion channel-linked receptor GDP is replaced with GTP. G protein-linked receptor DAG is the second messenger. G protein-linked receptor What type of chemical compound diffuses across synapses? Neurotransmitters What is typically the result of receptor upregulation? A hormone's signal is amplified. When food is abundant, the cellular slime mold Dictyostelium secretes cAMP into the environment to signal the formation of a multicellular slug-shaped colony. False What type of protein can transduce a signal in two directions? Integrins Plants lack organ systems for disposing of toxic metabolic waste products. Their cells' vacuoles are similar to which animal cell organelle? lysosomes What are the colors of an electron micrograph? black and white DNA transcribes its information into what type of molecule? mRNA Microfilaments are linked with one another and with other proteins by linker proteins. True Which of the following statements about phospholipids is false? They contain three fatty acids chains. How are integral proteins unique in cell membranes? They are firmly bound to the membrane. What cellular process is represented in the accompanying figure? Exocytosis Which statement about lipid bilayers is false? They are inflexible. The role of ATP in the sodium-potassium pump is to transfer Na+ to the outside of a cell. What facilitates the rapid transport of water through the plasma membrane? Aquaporins Scaffold proteins ensure that signals are relayed ____. efficiently The gas ethylene is a plant hormone that regulates a variety of processes, including seed germination and ripening of fruit. True If the cells are physically close to one another, a signaling molecule on one cell may combine with a _________ on another cell. receptor The outer part of the enzyme-linked receptor has a binding site for a signaling molecule, and the part of the receptor that extends into the cytosol has a binding site for a specific G protein. False What is the process in which one activated receptor can give rise to thousands of final products? Signal amplification Which statement about the accompanying figures is true? Figure B has a smaller surface area to volume ratio than Figure A. The force necessary to cause microtubules of cilia and flagella to slide alongside one another is provided through the action of ____ proteins, which derive the energy to perform their work directly from ____ molecules. dynein; ATP Upon observing a cell of a grass blade, you notice a prominent sac that occupies a large portion of the cell. Which organelle is this? vacuole The smooth ER is the primary site for the synthesis of phospholipids and cholesterol needed to make ____. cell membranes What happens during the cotransport of glucose and sodium ions? Both D and E Refer to the accompanying figure. Which best describes what is happening to the red blood cells in Fig. A? There has been no net water movement. What type of cellular junction cements cells together that use cadherins as a belt around each cell? Adhering junctions A molecule that binds specifically to a receptor is called a ______________. ligand Sodium-potassium pumps help to maintain a separation of charges across the plasma membrane, which is called the _________________. membrane potential Which statement about receptors is false? They are also called ligands. Insulin stimulates cells to take in glucose by facilitated diffusion, so the down regulation of insulin receptors increases the ability of cells to take in glucose. __________________ False A glycoprotein destined for secretion from the cell would move through the Golgi complex in which sequence? cis face to medial region to trans face What type of microscopy uses a laser to excite fluorophores in a thin "slice" through a cell? confocal microscopy Which of the following is a key component of the cytoskeleton? microtubules What have studies of glucose transport in liposomes revealed? The binding of glucose triggers a conformational change in the carrier protein. Why can cholesterol act as a "fluidity buffer" in cell membranes? It is slightly amphipathic because of the presence of one hydroxyl group. What is the passive movement of water along a concentration gradient? Osmosis Peripheral proteins are linked to either surface of the plasma membrane by bonding to integral proteins through noncovalent interactions. When food is scarce, the amoeba-like cellular slime mold, Dictyostelium, secretes which compound? Cyclic adenosine monophosphate What happens when Ras proteins become stuck in their "on" state? There is unregulated cell division. Which is a part of a signal transduction pathway that enables vision in dim light in vertebrates? Rhodopsin Typically, the gate of an ion channel remains closed until a(n) ____ binds to the receptor. ligand In scanning electron microscopy, an electron beam passes through a very thin slice of a specimen and then falls onto a photographic plate or a fluorescent screen. False Which two organelles are responsible for converting energy into forms that can be used by cells? mitochondria and chloroplasts What does the nucleolus, within the nucleus, synthesize? ribosomal RNA Which statement about plasma membranes is false? Plasma membranes prevent communication with other cells. What type of molecule can rapidly cross a plasma membrane? Small, hydrophobic molecules The main signaling cascade for cell division and differentiation is the ____ cascade. MAP kinase Kinesin transports organelles toward the minus end of a microtubule. False While testing an experimental drip on a vertebrate cell, you notice that the cell cortex becomes more fluid and the cell loses its ability to move. Despite this, you determine that cell strength is maintained. Based on these observations, you correctly conclude that the drug most directly affects: actin filaments In the accompanying figure, what is the form of cellular junction? Plasmodesmata A transmembrane protein differs from other membrane proteins because it completely extends through the membrane. What is found between adjacent plant cells that allows signal molecules to pass quickly from one cell to another? Plasmodesmata Where are hormones produced in animals? Endocrine glands When an enzyme-linked receptor is activated, a conformational change activates the extracellular kinases. False What enzyme in the ER lumen catalyzes the efficient folding of proteins into proper conformations? molecular chaperones Mutations to ABC transporter genes contribute to cystic fibrosis. True Consider the cellular process illustrated in the accompanying figure. What substance would most likely be transported in this manner? Hormones Most plasmodesmata contain a narrow cylindrical structure, called the desmotubule, which runs through the channel and connects the smooth ER of the two adjacent cells. True Which local regulator is stored in cells of the immune system and released during an allergic reaction? Histamine Which is a major group of enzyme-linked receptors? Tyrosine kinases What activates protein kinase C? DAG Choanoflagellates are important in the study of cell communication evolution because choanoflagellates have protein kinases similar to those in animals. A local regulator is a signaling molecule that diffuses through the interstitial fluid, the fluid surrounding the cells, and acts on nearby cells. What is this process? Paracrine regulation The many short appendages that a cell has are called cilia. True Which of the following organelles plays an important role in apoptosis, or programmed cell death? mitochondria During an infection, white blood cells travel to the infected site and phagocytize the pathogens. After phagocytosis, primary lysosomes fuse with the phagocytic vesicle to form a larger vesicle called a secondary lysosome. The purpose for this process is to: degrade the pathogens with hydrolytic enzymes for later export from the cell LDL cholesterol is taken into the cell by receptor-mediated endocytosis. True What method does a human white blood cell employ to engulf a bacterial cell? Phagocytosis Which molecule is least likely to cross a cellular membrane by simple diffusion? Potassium ion integrins Anchor cell to extracellular matrix channels Allow selective transport of ions or molecules protein pumps Use ATP to transport solutes signal transduction receptors Transmit information into cell membrane-bound enzymes Catalyze reactions which take place within or along the membrane surface The peripheral membrane proteins can be easily removed without disrupting the bilayer structure of the membrane. True During signal transduction of a G protein, the first messenger binds to the receptor, and the G protein is activated. What happens next? Activation of adenylyl cyclase What is generally the maximum magnifying capacity of a light microscope? 2000 Which technique is used to separate different part of cells so that they can be studied by both physical and chemical methods? Cell fractionation In many cells, including almost all animal cells, the centrosome contains two structures called _________. centrioles You light a scented candle in the guest bathroom. Within a few minutes, you can smell the candle's scent throughout the hallway. What process is occurring? Simple diffusion In animal cells, the main microtubule organizing center (or centrosome) is important in cell division. True Cells that secrete large amounts of glycoprotein have many Golgi stacks. True The role of ATP in the sodium-potassium pump is to transfer Na+ to the outside of a cell. Why can cholesterol act as a "fluidity buffer" in cell membranes? It is slightly amphipathic because of the presence of one hydroxyl group. In the IP3 pathway, what is the function of IP3? Binds calcium channels in the ER What happens when Ras proteins become stuck in their "on" state? There is unregulated cell division. Where are calcium ions stored before a signaling pathway releases them into the cytosol? Endoplasmic reticulum How is paracrine signaling different from other types of signaling? The signaling molecules are diffused through interstitial fluid and act on nearby cells. If a bacterial toxin destroys ribosomes, what cellular activity will be affected first? Protein synthesis Which statement about Ras proteins is false? They are inactivated when phosphorylated. What type of cells must receive, relay, and respond to the information signaled? Target cells Evidence that all living cells have a common origin is best illustrated by: the basic similarities in cell structure and chemistry Refer to the accompanying figure. Which best describes the red blood cells in Fig. B? These red blood cells have shrunk in response to a hypertonic external solution. The following are different types of neurotransmitters EXCEPT cyclic adenosine. How are hormones produced by endocrine glands typically transported to target cells? By the blood