NUR 208 COMPLETE EXAM READY VERIFIED QUESTIONS AND
ANSWERS - COMPREHENSIVE LATEST VERSION 2026/2027
Q1. A client is prescribed warfarin. Which lab value should the nurse
monitor most closely?
A. Complete blood count
B. Prothrombin time/INR
C. Blood urea nitrogen
D. Serum creatinine
Answer: B
Rationale: Warfarin is an anticoagulant; PT/INR measures its effectiveness
and guides dosing.
Q2. Which antidote is used for an acetaminophen (Tylenol) overdose?
A. Naloxone
B. Flumazenil
C. N-acetylcysteine
D. Activated charcoal only
Answer: C
Rationale: N-acetylcysteine replenishes glutathione stores depleted by toxic
acetaminophen metabolites.
Q3. A client receives morphine sulfate. The nurse's priority assessment is:
A. Urine output
B. Respiratory rate
C. Blood pressure
D. Bowel sounds
Answer: B
Rationale: Opioids cause CNS and respiratory depression; respiratory rate is
the top priority.
Q4. Digoxin toxicity is potentiated by which electrolyte imbalance?
A. Hypernatremia
B. Hypercalcemia
C. Hypokalemia
D. Hypermagnesemia
Answer: C
NUR 208 Review — Confidential Study Material Page 1
, Rationale: Hypokalemia increases cardiac sensitivity to digoxin, raising
toxicity risk.
Q5. Which medication requires the nurse to assess for 'red man
syndrome'?
A. Penicillin
B. Vancomycin
C. Gentamicin
D. Ciprofloxacin
Answer: B
Rationale: Red man syndrome (flushing, erythema) occurs with rapid IV
vancomycin infusion.
Q6. A client takes metformin. The nurse should withhold the drug before:
A. Chest X-ray
B. Contrast-dye imaging study
C. Routine urinalysis
D. Echocardiogram
Answer: B
Rationale: Metformin combined with iodinated contrast can cause lactic
acidosis; it must be held.
Q7. The therapeutic range for serum lithium levels is:
A. 0.1–0.5 mEq/L
B. 0.6–1.2 mEq/L
C. 1.5–2.5 mEq/L
D. 2.5–3.5 mEq/L
Answer: B
Rationale: Therapeutic lithium level is 0.6–1.2 mEq/L; above 1.5 is toxic.
Q8. Heparin overdose is treated with:
A. Vitamin K
B. Protamine sulfate
C. Fresh frozen plasma
D. Phytonadione
Answer: B
Rationale: Protamine sulfate neutralizes heparin by forming an inactive
complex.
Q9. Which instruction is most important for a client on tetracycline?
A. Take with milk
NUR 208 Review — Confidential Study Material Page 2
, B. Avoid sunlight
C. Take on a full stomach
D. Monitor for hypoglycemia
Answer: B
Rationale: Tetracycline causes photosensitivity; clients must avoid
prolonged sun exposure.
Q10. A client on phenytoin should be taught to:
A. Increase sodium intake
B. Practice good oral hygiene
C. Take the drug with antacids
D. Avoid leafy vegetables
Answer: B
Rationale: Phenytoin causes gingival hyperplasia; oral hygiene prevents
complications.
Q11. Furosemide (Lasix) is classified as:
A. Thiazide diuretic
B. Loop diuretic
C. Potassium-sparing diuretic
D. Osmotic diuretic
Answer: B
Rationale: Furosemide acts on the loop of Henle; it is a potent loop diuretic.
Q12. Which electrolyte should be monitored when a client is on
furosemide?
A. Sodium
B. Potassium
C. Calcium
D. Phosphorus
Answer: B
Rationale: Loop diuretics cause potassium wasting, risking hypokalemia.
Q13. Atenolol belongs to which drug class?
A. ACE inhibitor
B. Calcium channel blocker
C. Beta-1 selective blocker
D. Alpha blocker
Answer: C
Rationale: Atenolol selectively blocks beta-1 receptors, reducing heart rate
and blood pressure.
NUR 208 Review — Confidential Study Material Page 3
, Q14. A client on isoniazid (INH) should take which vitamin supplement to
prevent peripheral neuropathy?
A. Vitamin C
B. Vitamin B12
C. Pyridoxine (B6)
D. Vitamin D
Answer: C
Rationale: INH depletes vitamin B6; supplementation prevents drug-induced
peripheral neuropathy.
Q15. Naloxone (Narcan) reverses the effects of:
A. Benzodiazepines
B. Opioids
C. Barbiturates
D. Alcohol
Answer: B
Rationale: Naloxone is an opioid antagonist that competitively binds opioid
receptors.
Q16. Which side effect is most associated with ACE inhibitors?
A. Hypertension
B. Dry cough
C. Hyperkalemia only
D. Bradycardia
Answer: B
Rationale: ACE inhibitors inhibit bradykinin breakdown, causing a persistent
dry cough.
Q17. A client receiving aminoglycoside therapy should be monitored for:
A. Hepatotoxicity and cardiotoxicity
B. Nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity
C. Pulmonary fibrosis
D. Bone marrow suppression
Answer: B
Rationale: Aminoglycosides are nephrotoxic and ototoxic; renal function and
hearing must be monitored.
Q18. The nurse administers insulin lispro. The expected onset of action is:
A. 30–60 minutes
B. 1–2 hours
C. 10–15 minutes
NUR 208 Review — Confidential Study Material Page 4
ANSWERS - COMPREHENSIVE LATEST VERSION 2026/2027
Q1. A client is prescribed warfarin. Which lab value should the nurse
monitor most closely?
A. Complete blood count
B. Prothrombin time/INR
C. Blood urea nitrogen
D. Serum creatinine
Answer: B
Rationale: Warfarin is an anticoagulant; PT/INR measures its effectiveness
and guides dosing.
Q2. Which antidote is used for an acetaminophen (Tylenol) overdose?
A. Naloxone
B. Flumazenil
C. N-acetylcysteine
D. Activated charcoal only
Answer: C
Rationale: N-acetylcysteine replenishes glutathione stores depleted by toxic
acetaminophen metabolites.
Q3. A client receives morphine sulfate. The nurse's priority assessment is:
A. Urine output
B. Respiratory rate
C. Blood pressure
D. Bowel sounds
Answer: B
Rationale: Opioids cause CNS and respiratory depression; respiratory rate is
the top priority.
Q4. Digoxin toxicity is potentiated by which electrolyte imbalance?
A. Hypernatremia
B. Hypercalcemia
C. Hypokalemia
D. Hypermagnesemia
Answer: C
NUR 208 Review — Confidential Study Material Page 1
, Rationale: Hypokalemia increases cardiac sensitivity to digoxin, raising
toxicity risk.
Q5. Which medication requires the nurse to assess for 'red man
syndrome'?
A. Penicillin
B. Vancomycin
C. Gentamicin
D. Ciprofloxacin
Answer: B
Rationale: Red man syndrome (flushing, erythema) occurs with rapid IV
vancomycin infusion.
Q6. A client takes metformin. The nurse should withhold the drug before:
A. Chest X-ray
B. Contrast-dye imaging study
C. Routine urinalysis
D. Echocardiogram
Answer: B
Rationale: Metformin combined with iodinated contrast can cause lactic
acidosis; it must be held.
Q7. The therapeutic range for serum lithium levels is:
A. 0.1–0.5 mEq/L
B. 0.6–1.2 mEq/L
C. 1.5–2.5 mEq/L
D. 2.5–3.5 mEq/L
Answer: B
Rationale: Therapeutic lithium level is 0.6–1.2 mEq/L; above 1.5 is toxic.
Q8. Heparin overdose is treated with:
A. Vitamin K
B. Protamine sulfate
C. Fresh frozen plasma
D. Phytonadione
Answer: B
Rationale: Protamine sulfate neutralizes heparin by forming an inactive
complex.
Q9. Which instruction is most important for a client on tetracycline?
A. Take with milk
NUR 208 Review — Confidential Study Material Page 2
, B. Avoid sunlight
C. Take on a full stomach
D. Monitor for hypoglycemia
Answer: B
Rationale: Tetracycline causes photosensitivity; clients must avoid
prolonged sun exposure.
Q10. A client on phenytoin should be taught to:
A. Increase sodium intake
B. Practice good oral hygiene
C. Take the drug with antacids
D. Avoid leafy vegetables
Answer: B
Rationale: Phenytoin causes gingival hyperplasia; oral hygiene prevents
complications.
Q11. Furosemide (Lasix) is classified as:
A. Thiazide diuretic
B. Loop diuretic
C. Potassium-sparing diuretic
D. Osmotic diuretic
Answer: B
Rationale: Furosemide acts on the loop of Henle; it is a potent loop diuretic.
Q12. Which electrolyte should be monitored when a client is on
furosemide?
A. Sodium
B. Potassium
C. Calcium
D. Phosphorus
Answer: B
Rationale: Loop diuretics cause potassium wasting, risking hypokalemia.
Q13. Atenolol belongs to which drug class?
A. ACE inhibitor
B. Calcium channel blocker
C. Beta-1 selective blocker
D. Alpha blocker
Answer: C
Rationale: Atenolol selectively blocks beta-1 receptors, reducing heart rate
and blood pressure.
NUR 208 Review — Confidential Study Material Page 3
, Q14. A client on isoniazid (INH) should take which vitamin supplement to
prevent peripheral neuropathy?
A. Vitamin C
B. Vitamin B12
C. Pyridoxine (B6)
D. Vitamin D
Answer: C
Rationale: INH depletes vitamin B6; supplementation prevents drug-induced
peripheral neuropathy.
Q15. Naloxone (Narcan) reverses the effects of:
A. Benzodiazepines
B. Opioids
C. Barbiturates
D. Alcohol
Answer: B
Rationale: Naloxone is an opioid antagonist that competitively binds opioid
receptors.
Q16. Which side effect is most associated with ACE inhibitors?
A. Hypertension
B. Dry cough
C. Hyperkalemia only
D. Bradycardia
Answer: B
Rationale: ACE inhibitors inhibit bradykinin breakdown, causing a persistent
dry cough.
Q17. A client receiving aminoglycoside therapy should be monitored for:
A. Hepatotoxicity and cardiotoxicity
B. Nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity
C. Pulmonary fibrosis
D. Bone marrow suppression
Answer: B
Rationale: Aminoglycosides are nephrotoxic and ototoxic; renal function and
hearing must be monitored.
Q18. The nurse administers insulin lispro. The expected onset of action is:
A. 30–60 minutes
B. 1–2 hours
C. 10–15 minutes
NUR 208 Review — Confidential Study Material Page 4
