NUR 3112 FINAL EXAM QUESTIONS ANSWERED CORRECTLY LATEST UPDATE 2026

NUR 3112 FINAL EXAM QUESTIONS ANSWERED CORRECTLY LATEST UPDATE 2026 What components are required for a patient to give consent to a procedure? (Select all that apply) A. The patient understands the procedure. B. The benefits are explained by the surgeon. C. The surgeon coerces the patient to give consent. D. The risks are not disclosed to the patient. E. Alternative treatment options are disclosed. - Answers A,B,E Rationale: The surgeon must provide benefits, risks, and alternative treatment options for the procedure/surgery before the nurse obtains consent. Coercion cannot occur for the patient must voluntarily give consent. Patient comprehension is a requirement for consent. A preoperative patient expresses anxiety about upcoming surgery. Which response by the nurse is most likely to stimulate further discussion? A. "I will be happy to explain the entire surgical procedure with you." B. "Everyone is nervous before surgery." C. "Can you share with me what you've been told about surgery?" D. "Let me tell you about postoperative care and the amount of pain you can anticipate." - Answers C Rationale: Open-ended questions help to stimulate further discussion. Reasons for anxiety can be multiple, such as unpleasant interactions with health care providers, uncontrolled pain, anesthesia reactions, and other post-operative complications. Plan of care can be individualized once the nurse understands the patient's source of anxiety. Which task would be most appropriate for the nurse to delegate to the unlicensed personnel? A. Complete the preoperative checklist. B. Assess the patient's preoperative vital signs. C. Teach the patient about coughing and deep breathing. D. Assist the patient to remove clothing and jewelry. - Answers D The nurse provided preoperative teaching for a patient. The patient has a history of arthritis and takes aspirin daily. The nurse determines that the patient needs additional teaching if the patient makes which statement? A. "Aspirin can cause abnormal blood clotting." B. "Aspirin can cause bleeding after surgery." C. "I need to continue to take aspirin until my surgery day." D. "I need to check with my doctor about when to stop taking aspirin prior to surgery." - Answers C Rationale: Aspirin is an antiplatelet, which is abnormal blood clotting and can cause bleeding after surgery. The patient's physician will determine when to stop aspirin and ideally aspirin would be stopped 10 days prior to surgery. Continuing aspirin to the surgery date puts the patient at risk for bleeding during surgery, thus determining that the patient would need further education. The nurse must obtain surgical consent forms for the scheduled surgery. Which patient(s) would not be able to consent legally to surgery? (Select all that apply). A. 65-year-old who cannot read nor write. B. 80-year-old who is not oriented to place or situation. C. 30-year-old who does not understand English. D. 98-year-old who understands the procedure. E. 6-year-old who has a fractured ankle. - Answers B, E Rationale: The patient that cannot read nor write can still provide consent. The consent form can be red to the patient and the surgeon would make sure all surgical questions are answered. Patients who are not alert and oriented cannot provide consent, so the medical power of attorney or next of kin would provide consent for the procedure. The patient who does not understand English needs a certified interpreter to provide surgical consent. Patients must understand the procedure before giving consent. Patients under the age of 18 cannot provide consent, therefore the legal guardian or parent would give consent. What components are required for a patient to give consent to a procedure? (Select all that apply) A. The patient understands the procedure. B. The benefits are explained by the surgeon. C. The surgeon coerces the patient to give consent. D. The risks are not disclosed to the patient. E. Alternative treatment options are disclosed. - Answers A. The patient needs to comprehend what will occur with the procedure. B. Benefits and risks need to be disclosed. The surgeon is responsible for this. E. In addition to risks and benefits, alternative treatment options need to be disclosed to the patient. Failure to provide all treatment options is unethical and deemed to be coercion. What preoperative diagnostic and laboratory tests would be appropriate for a patient with heart failure? SATA A. Echocardiogram B. Electrocardiogram (ECG) C. B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP) D. Renal Ultrasound E. Chest Xray - Answers a. Patients who have heart issues need a further cardiac workup which includes an echocardiogram. This provides us with useful information such as the patient's ejection fraction, which is useful for heart failure patients. b. Patients who have heart issues need a further cardiac workup which includes an electrocardiogram. This provides information concerning heart rate and rhythm. c. BNP correlates with left-ventricular pressures, thus a good indicator for heart failure. The higher the BNP level, the increase in heart failure severity. e. Chest x-ray would provide information such as pulmonary edema, which can be a result of heart failure. A common reason that a nurse may need extra time when preparing older adults for surgery is their: A. ineffective coping B. limited adaptation to stress C. diminished vision and hearing D. Need to include caregivers in activities - Answers C. As patients get older, several types of vision changes can occur, such as age-related macular degeneration, cataracts, glaucoma, etc. Hearing also changes with age. Age-related hearing loss is called presbycusis. The nurse is monitoring a patient who is receiving epidural anesthesia. What epidural complication causes hypotension and bradycardia? a. Blockade of motor nerve fibers b. Blockade of sensory nerve fibers c. Blockade of sympathetic nerve fibers d. Blockade of parasympathetic nerve fibers - Answers C. The sympathetic nervous system is the "flight or fight" response, which causes tachycardia and hypertension. Blockade of this response would cause a parasympathetic response, resulting in bradycardia and hypotension. The patient provides document specifying his wishes if is he is unable to do so. What is this document called? A. Informed Consent B. Insurance Card C. Patient's Bill of Rights D. Advanced Directive - Answers D. Advanced Directive Which patient is at greatest risk for surgery? A. 18 year old boy taking lorazepam B. 58 year old man taking atenolol C. 73 year old woman taking an analgesic D. 35 year old woman taking warfarin - Answers D. 35 year old woman taking warfarin The nurse reports which of the following laboratory findings to the surgeon? A. Potassium 3.4 mEq/L B. Creatinine 1.9 mg/dL C. Sodium 140 mEq/L D. Fasting glucose 80 mg/dL - Answers B. Creatinine 1.9 mg/dL (range for creatinine is 0.5-1.3 mg/dL) The patient is signing a consent. What is required for informed consent? (select all that apply) A. Alternative treatment options discussed with the patient B. Patient requires family member to translate consent form C. Patient voluntarily signs the consent form D. Questions answered after the patient signs the consent form - Answers A, C What complications are associated with the administration of total parenteral nutrition (TPN)? A.Diarrhea B.Malabsorption C. Hyperglycemia D. Vomiting - Answers C. Hyperglycemia What is the primary purpose of maintaining NPO before surgery? A. To prevent malnutrition B. To prevent electrolyte imbalance C. To prevent aspiration pneumonia D. To prevent intestinal obstruction - Answers C. To prevent aspiration pneumonia A pt on tube feeding and has a residual of 300 mL with nausea and vomiting. What would the nurse do first? A. Stop the tube feeding B. Place the patient in a supine position C. Notify the physician D. Nothing - Answers A. Stop the tube feeding An obese patient is admitted for abdominal surgery. This patient is more prone to which post-op complication? A. Anemia B. Protein loss C. Dehiscence D. Seizures - Answers C. Dehiscence The patient reports several allergies. What should the nurse do next? A. Note the information in the chart B. Ask patient to describe severity of allergies C. Place an allergy alert wristband on the patient D. Notify anesthesia for possible risk for anesthetic allergies - Answers B. Ask patient to describe severity of allergies The patient is receiving epidural analgesia. What complications can occur? (select all that apply) A. Hypotension B. Tachycardia C. Hypertension D. Bradycardia - Answers A. Hypotension and D. Bradycardia Which of the following pre-op assessment findings indicates a need to contact the surgeon? A. Temp 100.7 degrees Fahrenheit B. Pulse 90 beats per minute C. Respiratory rate 20 breaths per minute D. Blood pressure 140/74 - Answers A. Temp 100.7 degrees Fahrenheit You observe the patient pacing and asking questions repeatedly. The likely cause of the behavior is A. Anxiety about the surgical procedure B. Separation anxiety from family members C. Undiagnosed urinary tract infection D. Underlying emotional problem - Answers A. Anxiety about the surgical procedure The RN determines the patient is unable to describe procedure. The nurse should: A. Obtain consent because this is expected with pre-op anxiety B. Teach the patient about the procedure C. Ask the unit manager to assist with teaching plan D. Inform the surgeon so more information can be provided - Answers D. Inform the surgeon so more information can be provided What is the rationale for palliative surgery? A. Resolve health problem by repairing cause B. Always improve functional ability C. Enhance personal appearance D. Relieve or reduce symptoms - Answers D. Relieve or reduce symptoms Which patient most likely requires special pre-operative assessment? A. Woman taking daily anticoagulants to treat afib B. Man taking daily thyroid supplement to treat hypothyroidism C. Man taking acetaminophen once a week D. Woman taking ACE inhibitor for hypertension - Answers A. Woman taking daily anticoagulants to treat afib The nurse recognizes which of the following as a surgical risk factor? A. Diet-controlled diabetes mellitus B. The patient's age is 65 C. Brother had complications with general anesthesia D. Ten pounds over ideal body weight - Answers C. Brother had complications with general anesthesia The nurse informs the physician of a potassium level of 6.2 mEq/L because of the risk for: A. Cardiac problems B. Infection C. Anemia D. Fluid imbalances - Answers A. Cardiac problems What is the rationale for using pre-operative checklists the day of surgery? A. Patient is correctly identified and pre-op meds administered B. Voiding is last procedure before transfer to OR C. All pre-op orders and procedures completed and documented D. Patient's family informed where to wait for pt - Answers C. All pre-op orders and procedures completed and documented The post-op pt refuses to ambulate. Ambulation helps to prevent what post-op complications? (select all that apply) A. Atelectasis B. Deep Vein Thrombosis C. Wound dehiscence D. Paralytic ileus - Answers A. Atelectasis B. Deep Vein Thrombosis D. Paralytic ileus The post-op pt is SOB while ambulating. What Hndings would be concerning for this pt? (Select all that apply). A. Lung sounds reveal fine crackles in bilateral bases B. Incentive spirometer findings are less than yesterday's levels C. Oxygen saturation is 95% on 2L nasal cannula D. Temperature is 100.9°F - Answers A. Lung sounds reveal fine crackles in bilateral bases B. Incentive spirometer findings are less than yesterday's levels D. Temperature is 100.9°F A 43 yo patient is going to have stomach surgery. Which of the following is a major pre-op concern? A. Brother had a tonsillectomy at age 11 B. Patient has IV fluids running at 50 mL/hr C. Patient smokes 1 pack per day D. Patient had surgery 6 months ago - Answers C. Patient smokes 1 pack per day One of the first symptoms of malignant hyperthermia can include: A. Hyperthermia B. Muscle rigidity C. Bradycardia D. Hypothermia - Answers B. Muscle rigidity In assessing the pre-op patient, which statement requires further follow up? A. "I skip breakfast, so I won't be hungry before surgery." B. "I have used several different herbs for my health." C. "I started taking acetaminophen last week." D. "I usually work out three times per week." - Answers B. "I have used several different herbs for my health." Nurse reviews labs for a post-op patient: Potassium 3.6, WBC 10, Hgb 8.5. What should the nurse do next? A. Call the physician to obtain a potassium order. B. Obtain physician order for blood cultures. C. Assess the incision site for signs of bleeding. D. Assess incision site for signs of infection. - Answers C. Assess the incision site for signs of bleeding. Which patients can be discharged from the PACU? (select all that apply) A. Patient with persistent vomiting despite administration of ondansetron B. Patient with BP 145/76 and orders to keep SBP 150 C. Pain decreased to 4/10 after morphine 2 mg IV administration D. Patient with oxygen saturation of 95% on 2L nasal cannula - Answers B. Patient with BP 145/76 and orders to keep SBP 150 C. Pain decreased to 4/10 after morphine 2 mg IV administration D. Patient with oxygen saturation of 95% on 2L nasal cannula The nurse is determining if the patient is ready to be transferred from the PACU to the floor. What assessment findings would show the patient is ready for transfer? SATA a. Patient reports no nausea and vomiting. b. Patient's pain rating decreased to 5/10 after administration of hydromorphone 1 mg IV push c. Patient's blood pressure increased to 185/92. d. Patient's surgical dressing shows minimal shadowing. e. Patient's oxygen saturation is 96% on 4 liters nasal cannula. - Answers a. Patient who does not have nausea and vomiting or has those under control qualify to leave PACU. b. The patient's pain is decreasing based on a pain intervention, which would qualify the patient for transfer out of PACU. If the patient's pain rating was 9/10 after an opioid intravenously, then the patient needs to have further intervention and stays in the PACU. d. Minimal shadowing indicates some discharge from the incision, but does not indicate active bleeding. If the dressing was saturated with blood, the nurse would need to assess the patient and intervention is needed to stabilize the patient before transfer from PACU. e. Patient's oxygen saturation is in the high 90s, which is the goal for oxygen saturation. The patient is eligible for transfer from PACU. The patient's temperature is 100.1 degrees Farenheit 20 hours after surgery. The nurse knows this is a result of: a. Infection occuring at the surgical site. b. Inflammation response to surgery. c. Effects of anesthesia. d. Atelectesis in the lungs. - Answers B. Temperature ≤100.4°F for the first 48 hours after surgery is related to the inflammatory response. Tissue cutting and manipulation occurs during procedures, which triggers the inflammatory response. Lab values for BUN - Answers BUN = blood urea nitrogen BUN is a chemical waste of the body and excess levels can indicate that either the kidneys or the liver are not working properly Normal Adult: 10-20 mg/dL Elderly may be slightly higher than adult What does CBC stand for and what nine things does it test? - Answers CBC = complete blood count Involves testing several components of the blood, including the following: (HCT) Hematocrit (HGB) Hemoglobin (PLT) Platelet count (RBC) Red blood cell count (WBC) White blood cell count and differential (MCV) Mean corpuscular volume (MCH) Mean corpuscular hemoglobin (MCHC) Mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration (RDW) Red blood cell distribution width Lab values for Hematocrit - Answers Hematocrit is the total vL of RBCs once centrifuge occurs. Usually 3x the amount of Hgb if RBCs are normal size and have normal amounts of Hgb. Normal Adult: 37-52% Lab values for Hemoglobin (Hgb) - Answers Protein molecule w/i erythrocytes that carries oxygen Hgb levels closely reflect Hct and RBC levels. Normal Adult: 12-18 g/dl What part of the blood is considered when determining if a patient needs a blood transfusion? - Answers Hgb or Hct. For both, levels must be above 8 g/dl or 24% Lab values for blood platelets - Answers Platelets (thrombocytes) help with clotting Adult/ Elderly: 150,000-400,000/mm³ Lab values for WBCs (leukocytes) - Answers Normal Adult: 5,000-10,000/mm³ Leukocytosis- higher than 10,000 Leukopenia- lower than 5,000 Lab values for WBCs differential count - Answers Neutrophils (granulocytes): 55-75% Lymphocytes: 20-40% Monocytes: 2-8% Eosinophils: 1-4% Basophils: 0.5-1% **Nifty Lenny makes excellent brownies What is the basic metabolic panel (BMP) - Answers It is a frequently ordered panel of 8 tests that gives a health practitioner important information about the current status of a person's metabolism, including health of the kidneys, blood glucose level, and electrolyte and acid/base balance. -Glucose -Calcium -Sodium -Potassium -Bicarbonate (CO2) -Chloride -BUN (blood urea nitrogen) -Creatinine **Grandma can sew perfect bitty cross-stitches by caring Lab values for glucose - Answers Glucose is a simple sugar. Glucose testing measures the amount in the blood. Levels differ according to time of day Adults: Fasting 70-110 mg/dL (non-fasting: / = 200) Elderly: increases after the age of 50 Hyperglycemia - Answers Glucose levels too high; high blood sugar over 110 Hypoglycemia - Answers Low blood sugar; glucose levels are low Below 70 Lab values for Sodium - Answers Normal Adult: 135-145 mEq/L Define Hypernatremia - Answers High levels of sodium in the blood more than 145 Define Hyponatremia - Answers Low levels of sodium in the blood less than 135 Lab values for Potassium - Answers Potassium- also called Kalemia This electrolyte is an essential mineral. Major role in maintenance of fluid and electrolyte balance Adult: 3.5-5.0 mEq/L Define Hyperkalemia - Answers Blood potassium levels are too high more than 5 Lab values for CO2 - Answers CO2- otherwise known as bicarbonate Normal: 23-30 mEq/L Testing for CO2 levels can help evaluate blood pH or CO2/ O2 balance Lab values for Chloride - Answers This mineral is one of the electrolytes (along w/ sodium, potassium, calcium, magnesium, and phosphate) that helps balance acids and bases in the body. It also helps move fluid in and out of cells Normal Adult: 98-106 mEq/L Lab values for calcium - Answers Calcium- or Calcemia Calcium enables our blood to clot, our muscles to contract, and our heart to beat Normal Adult: 9.0-10.5 mg/dL Levels tend to decrease in the elderly Define Hypercalcemia - Answers Calcium levels are too high more than 10.5 Define Hypocalcemia - Answers Calcium levels are too low less then 9 Lab values for Creatinine - Answers Creatinine is a form of energy stored in the cells. It helps produce ATP. Normal Adult: 0.5-1.2 mg/dL