NUR 2063 / NUR2063: Essentials of Pathophysiology Exam 2 – 2026
1. Which of the following best describes the pathophysiology of Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus?
A. Insulin resistance with gradual β-cell dysfunction
B. Autoimmune destruction of pancreatic β-cells
C. Excess glucagon production
D. Decreased hepatic glucose production
Answer: B
Explanation: Type 1 Diabetes involves autoimmune-mediated destruction of β-cells, leading to
absolute insulin deficiency.
2. A patient with chronic hypertension develops left ventricular hypertrophy. This is an example
of:
A. Atrophy
B. Hypertrophy
C. Hyperplasia
D. Dysplasia
Answer: B
Explanation: Hypertrophy refers to the increase in cell size in response to increased workload, as
seen in cardiac muscle with hypertension.
3. Which statement regarding cellular hypoxia is correct?
A. It increases oxidative phosphorylation
B. It leads to ATP depletion and potential cell death
C. It decreases anaerobic metabolism
D. It always causes necrosis immediately
Answer: B
Explanation: Hypoxia reduces ATP production, causing failure of ion pumps, cell swelling, and
potential necrosis.
4. Which type of necrosis is commonly associated with ischemic injury in the heart?
A. Coagulative necrosis
B. Liquefactive necrosis
C. Caseous necrosis
D. Fat necrosis
Answer: A
Explanation: Coagulative necrosis preserves tissue architecture and is typical of ischemic infarcts
in solid organs like the heart.
5. In a patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), which pathophysiologic
mechanism contributes to hypoxemia?
A. Decreased airway resistance
,B. Ventilation-perfusion mismatch
C. Hyperventilation
D. Increased diffusion capacity
Answer: B
Explanation: COPD leads to V/Q mismatch due to airflow obstruction and alveolar damage,
resulting in hypoxemia.
6. Which of the following is a hallmark of systemic inflammation?
A. Bradycardia
B. Fever and elevated C-reactive protein
C. Hypotension only
D. Reduced leukocyte count
Answer: B
Explanation: Fever, leukocytosis, and elevated acute-phase reactants like CRP are classic signs
of systemic inflammation.
7. Which electrolyte imbalance is most likely in diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)?
A. Hyperkalemia initially
B. Hypercalcemia
C. Hypokalemia initially
D. Hyponatremia only
Answer: A
Explanation: DKA often causes initial hyperkalemia due to extracellular shift from acidosis,
though total body potassium is depleted.
8. A patient presents with jaundice. Which pathophysiologic process is most likely involved?
A. Hemolysis, hepatocellular dysfunction, or bile duct obstruction
B. Hyperventilation
C. Dehydration only
D. Hyperglycemia
Answer: A
Explanation: Jaundice results from excess bilirubin due to hemolysis, liver dysfunction, or
obstruction of bile flow.
9. Which statement best describes the difference between apoptosis and necrosis?
A. Apoptosis is uncontrolled; necrosis is programmed
B. Apoptosis is energy-dependent and controlled; necrosis is uncontrolled and often
inflammatory
C. Necrosis never causes inflammation
D. Apoptosis always results in tissue scarring
, Answer: B
Explanation: Apoptosis is programmed cell death without inflammation; necrosis is uncontrolled
and usually triggers inflammation.
10. Which of the following hormones is primarily responsible for sodium retention in the
kidneys?
A. Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
B. Aldosterone
C. Cortisol
D. Insulin
Answer: B
Explanation: Aldosterone increases sodium reabsorption and potassium excretion in the distal
nephron.
11. In hyperthyroidism, the basal metabolic rate is:
A. Decreased
B. Increased
C. Unchanged
D. Initially decreased, then increased
Answer: B
Explanation: Hyperthyroidism increases BMR due to excess thyroid hormone stimulating
metabolism.
12. A 65-year-old patient presents with confusion, tremor, and elevated serum ammonia. Which
condition is most consistent with these findings?
A. Hepatic encephalopathy
B. Uremic encephalopathy
C. Hyperglycemia
D. Hypothyroidism
Answer: A
Explanation: Liver dysfunction with hyperammonemia leads to hepatic encephalopathy,
manifesting as neurologic changes.
13. Which type of shock is characterized by widespread vasodilation and relative hypovolemia?
A. Hypovolemic shock
B. Cardiogenic shock
C. Distributive shock (e.g., septic shock)
D. Obstructive shock
Answer: C
Explanation: Distributive shock, including septic and anaphylactic, causes systemic vasodilation,
lowering perfusion pressure despite normal blood volume.
1. Which of the following best describes the pathophysiology of Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus?
A. Insulin resistance with gradual β-cell dysfunction
B. Autoimmune destruction of pancreatic β-cells
C. Excess glucagon production
D. Decreased hepatic glucose production
Answer: B
Explanation: Type 1 Diabetes involves autoimmune-mediated destruction of β-cells, leading to
absolute insulin deficiency.
2. A patient with chronic hypertension develops left ventricular hypertrophy. This is an example
of:
A. Atrophy
B. Hypertrophy
C. Hyperplasia
D. Dysplasia
Answer: B
Explanation: Hypertrophy refers to the increase in cell size in response to increased workload, as
seen in cardiac muscle with hypertension.
3. Which statement regarding cellular hypoxia is correct?
A. It increases oxidative phosphorylation
B. It leads to ATP depletion and potential cell death
C. It decreases anaerobic metabolism
D. It always causes necrosis immediately
Answer: B
Explanation: Hypoxia reduces ATP production, causing failure of ion pumps, cell swelling, and
potential necrosis.
4. Which type of necrosis is commonly associated with ischemic injury in the heart?
A. Coagulative necrosis
B. Liquefactive necrosis
C. Caseous necrosis
D. Fat necrosis
Answer: A
Explanation: Coagulative necrosis preserves tissue architecture and is typical of ischemic infarcts
in solid organs like the heart.
5. In a patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), which pathophysiologic
mechanism contributes to hypoxemia?
A. Decreased airway resistance
,B. Ventilation-perfusion mismatch
C. Hyperventilation
D. Increased diffusion capacity
Answer: B
Explanation: COPD leads to V/Q mismatch due to airflow obstruction and alveolar damage,
resulting in hypoxemia.
6. Which of the following is a hallmark of systemic inflammation?
A. Bradycardia
B. Fever and elevated C-reactive protein
C. Hypotension only
D. Reduced leukocyte count
Answer: B
Explanation: Fever, leukocytosis, and elevated acute-phase reactants like CRP are classic signs
of systemic inflammation.
7. Which electrolyte imbalance is most likely in diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)?
A. Hyperkalemia initially
B. Hypercalcemia
C. Hypokalemia initially
D. Hyponatremia only
Answer: A
Explanation: DKA often causes initial hyperkalemia due to extracellular shift from acidosis,
though total body potassium is depleted.
8. A patient presents with jaundice. Which pathophysiologic process is most likely involved?
A. Hemolysis, hepatocellular dysfunction, or bile duct obstruction
B. Hyperventilation
C. Dehydration only
D. Hyperglycemia
Answer: A
Explanation: Jaundice results from excess bilirubin due to hemolysis, liver dysfunction, or
obstruction of bile flow.
9. Which statement best describes the difference between apoptosis and necrosis?
A. Apoptosis is uncontrolled; necrosis is programmed
B. Apoptosis is energy-dependent and controlled; necrosis is uncontrolled and often
inflammatory
C. Necrosis never causes inflammation
D. Apoptosis always results in tissue scarring
, Answer: B
Explanation: Apoptosis is programmed cell death without inflammation; necrosis is uncontrolled
and usually triggers inflammation.
10. Which of the following hormones is primarily responsible for sodium retention in the
kidneys?
A. Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
B. Aldosterone
C. Cortisol
D. Insulin
Answer: B
Explanation: Aldosterone increases sodium reabsorption and potassium excretion in the distal
nephron.
11. In hyperthyroidism, the basal metabolic rate is:
A. Decreased
B. Increased
C. Unchanged
D. Initially decreased, then increased
Answer: B
Explanation: Hyperthyroidism increases BMR due to excess thyroid hormone stimulating
metabolism.
12. A 65-year-old patient presents with confusion, tremor, and elevated serum ammonia. Which
condition is most consistent with these findings?
A. Hepatic encephalopathy
B. Uremic encephalopathy
C. Hyperglycemia
D. Hypothyroidism
Answer: A
Explanation: Liver dysfunction with hyperammonemia leads to hepatic encephalopathy,
manifesting as neurologic changes.
13. Which type of shock is characterized by widespread vasodilation and relative hypovolemia?
A. Hypovolemic shock
B. Cardiogenic shock
C. Distributive shock (e.g., septic shock)
D. Obstructive shock
Answer: C
Explanation: Distributive shock, including septic and anaphylactic, causes systemic vasodilation,
lowering perfusion pressure despite normal blood volume.
