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Bell Tech comprehensive PN Med Surg Nclex Style Exam 3rd Qtr 2nd set

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Bell Tech comprehensive PN Med Surg Nclex Style Exam 3rd Qtr 2nd setBell Tech comprehensive PN Med Surg Nclex Style Exam 3rd Qtr 2nd setBell Tech comprehensive PN Med Surg Nclex Style Exam 3rd Qtr 2nd setBell Tech comprehensive PN Med Surg Nclex Style Exam 3rd Qtr 2nd setBell Tech comprehensive PN Med Surg Nclex Style Exam 3rd Qtr 2nd setBell Tech comprehensive PN Med Surg Nclex Style Exam 3rd Qtr 2nd set

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Bell Tech comprehensive PN Med Surg Nclex Style Exam 3rd Qtr 2nd set


Name: ___________________________________________ Date: _______________________
1.The practical nurse has been assigned a client with a history of chronic obstructive
pulmonary disease (COPD) who has been admitted to the hospital with a medical diagnosis of
pneumonia. Which intervention poses the greatest risk of respiratory depression for a client
with a history of COPD?
a. Vancomycin 500 mg administered intravenously every 6 to 8 hours.
b. Chest physiotherapy and nebulizers performed every 4 to 6 hours.
c. Administration of acetaminophen 600 mg every 4 hours as needed for fever.
d. Oxygen administration via nasal cannula 4 L/m.

2. The nurse is teaching concerned family members of a client who experienced a cardiac arrest prior
to admission in the technique of cardiopulmonary resuscitation. The nurse recognizes the family
members are performing the technique correctly if they use which depth of manual chest
compression on the manikin?

a. 0.5 inch (1.27 cm) to 1 inch (2.54 cm)

b. 1.5 inch (3.8 cm) to 2 inches (5 cm)

c. 2 inches (5 cm) to 2.4 inches (6 cm)

d. 2.5 inches (6.4 cm) to 3 inches (7.6 cm)

According to the American Heart Association 2015 guidelines, the depth of compressions on an
adult during CPR should be at least 2 inches (5 cm) to 2.4 inches (6 cm).
3. A client with chronic pancreatitis has been taking pancreatin with meals. How does the
nurse assist with evaluating the effectiveness of the treatment? a. The client has no further
gallstones.
b. The powder is well mixed with applesauce.
c. The client’s blood sugar remains in normal range.
d. The client’s stools remain soft and medium brown in color. The client taking pancreatin
should have stools that are soft and medium brown in color. If the pancreatic enzyme
replacement is not effective, the stools would be loose, frequent, and have a fatty
consistency. Pancreatin will not prevent gallstones, nor stabilize the blood sugars. It is

Bell Tech comprehensive PN Med Surg Nclex Style Exam 3rd Qtr 2nd set

, important that the pancreatin powder be mixed well with applesauce, but ensuring it is
mixed well will not determine effectiveness of the medication
4. The nurse has reinforced instructions to a client with diabetes mellitus on how to
selfmonitor for symptoms of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). The nurse realizes the
instructions have been effective if the client can list which symptoms? (Select all that
apply.) a. Fruity breath odor
b. Rapid, weak pulse
c. Cold, clammy skin
d. Extreme thirst
e. Urinary frequency
f. Protruding eyeballs
Diabetic ketoacidosis is caused by a profound deficiency of insulin. Some common
characteristics include a sweet, fruity breath odor, a rapid weak pulse, extreme thirst, urinary
frequency, and sunken-appearing eyeballs.
5. A client who has undergone closed-appendectomy is prescribed to begin ambulation the
next day. The next day when the practical nurse (PN) goes to assist the client with
ambulation, the client yells they are watching the television and they do not feel like getting
out of bed. Which response should the PN provide?
a. “Your health care provider has prescribed ambulation on the first postoperative day.”
b. “You must ambulate to avoid serious complications that are much more painful.”
c. “I know how you feel—you’re angry about having to do this, but it is required.”
d. “I’ll be back in 30 minutes to help you get out of bed and walk around the room.” d Returning
within 30 minutes provides a “cooling off” period, is firm, direct, and nonthreatening, and
avoids arguing with the client.
6. The nurse is reinforcing hygiene instructions to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)
who will be bathing a client who has been diagnosed with pneumonia. The nurse should
instruct the UAP to plan to bathe the client at which time? a. The client with pneumonia
should not be bathed.
b. The client should be bathed according to facility schedule.
c. The client should be bathed after noninfectious clients are bathed.
d. The client should have activities such as bathing, alternated with rest periods. The client
should be allowed to rest before activities such as bathing take place. There is no
contraindication for bathing a client with pneumonia. Facility schedules are not the primary
Bell Tech comprehensive PN Med Surg Nclex Style Exam 3rd Qtr 2nd set

, reason to determine the timing of a client’s bath. By using standard and other precautions, it
would not matter whether the client with pneumonia is bathed before or after other
noninfectious clients.
7. A client diagnosed with duodenal ulcers is admitted to the hospital. The client was
administered ranitidine hydrochloride 150 mg PO at bedtime. Which finding would
indicate a therapeutic response of the medication? a. Gastric secretions pH level below
3.
b. Hemoccult testing is positive on two different occasions.
c. No difficulty falling asleep reported.
d. No complaints of abdominal pain or heartburn verbalized. Lack of abdominal pain within 4
hours after meals indicates decreased duodenal irritation, a positive outcome in the
treatment of duodenal ulcer.
8 A client diagnosed with bacterial meningitis is admitted to the unit and is prescribed
neuro checks every 2 hours. Which manifestation would the practical nurse monitor for
that would provide the first indication of altered neurological function? a. Change in level
of consciousness
b. Increasing muscular weakness
c. Changes in pupil size bilaterally
d. Progressive nuchal rigidity
9. The practical nurse (PN) is reviewing the health histories of assigned clients. Which factors
have a potential for development of throat cancer? (Select all that apply.)
a. Tobacco use: The most common risk factors for throat cancer are tobacco use, alcohol
abuse, human papillomavirus (HPV ), a diet lacking in fruits and vegetable, and
gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). Foods seasoned with herbs and spices have shown to
have some health benefits in decreasing the risk of developing cancer. A,b,d b. Excessive intake
of alcohol
c. Intake of hot and spicy foods
d. Human papillomavirus (HPV)
e. Lack of exercise
f. Lack of dietary fiber
10. The practical nurse is preparing a room for a client being admitted from the emergency
department with a diagnosis of new onset of seizures. Which intervention should the nurse
implement first?
Bell Tech comprehensive PN Med Surg Nclex Style Exam 3rd Qtr 2nd set

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