Kalitta Air OKE 540+ (Updated for 2026) Exam Prep Pack A+ Questions & Verified Answers

Kalitta Air 747-400 2021 OKE
(Updated for 2026) Exam Prep Pack | A+ Questions
540+
& Verified Answers


VERIFIED ANSWERS


Question 1
What minimum climb gradient must be maintained when conducting a departure procedure designed under TERPS criteria
when no gradient is specified? (GOM 5)
Correct Answer
• 200 feet per nautical mile


Question 2
If LNAV is armed in flight, at what cross track distance will it become active? (AOM Vol I, L)
Correct Answer
• 2.5 nautical miles


Question 3
What is the reason for approach idle? (AOM Vol II, Pg. 7-28)
Correct Answer
• Decreases acceleration time for go-around.


Question 4
What event will cause the engine fire detection system to configure itself in OR logic? Is there a cockpit indication? (AOM
Vol II, 8)
Correct Answer
• Failure of one of the detection loops during self test
• STATUS cue on the primary EICAS
• FIRE DET LOOP status message


Question 5
What will cause an engine bleed air SYS FAULT light to illuminate? (AOM Vol II, 2)
Correct Answer
• Bleed Overheat
• Bleed Overpressure
• HP Bleed open when commanded closed
• PRV open when commanded closed


Trusted by thousands of students and professionals worldwide Page 1 of 189

,Question 6
With the battery charger unpowered, the Main Battery will power the Main Standby Bus for a minimum of? (AOM Vol II, 6-
15)
Correct Answer
• For a minimum of 30 minutes


Question 7
Are there any limitations for taxiing out with 3-engines? 2-engines? (FTM,2-11)
Correct Answer
• Delayed engine start should be used when operationally possible. The following weights are for guidance only: o Less
than approximately 726,000 lbs, start engines 4, 1, and 2. o Less than approximately 660,000 lbs, start engines 4 and 1.

• If the engine has been shut down for several hours, it is desirable to operate at as low a thrust setting as practical for
several minutes prior to takeoff. o Taxiing with two engines at high gross weight is not recommended for normal
operation because of the noise and blast damage from higher than normal thrust requirements


Question 8
For purposes of condition reporting and airplane performance, a runway is considered contaminated when? (AOM Vol, Perf
11)
Correct Answer
• A runway where more than 25% of the runway length, within the width being used, is covered by standing water (more
than 1/8"), slush, or snow




Trusted by thousands of students and professionals worldwide Page 2 of 189

,Question 9
Pushing the Main Cargo AFT/FWD Fire ARM switch does what? (AOM Vol II, Pg. 8-4)
Correct Answer
• Turns off 2 packs
• Arms lower cargo compartment fire extinguishers
• Configures equipment cooling to override mode
• turns off all airflow and heat into lower cargo compartments
• Closes master trim air valve




Question 10
Do we have to select MAX power for a takeoff after being deiced?
Correct Answer
• No


Question 11
If mid and rollout RVR reports unavailable for a CAT II approach, what is the minimum RVR requirement? (OpSpecs 60-4)
Correct Answer
• If the mid and rollout RVR reports are unavailable, the TDZ report must be at least 1400 RVR.




Trusted by thousands of students and professionals worldwide Page 3 of 189

, Question 12
Is there a limitation prohibiting speed brakes and landing flaps? (FTC 4-13; AOM Vol I, NP-87)
Correct Answer
• Speedbrakes should be retracted before reaching 1,000 feet AGL


Question 13
When is a new Release required to be issued? (GOM Chapter 9 ref 9.6 page 9.44-9.48)
Correct Answer
A NEW Release is required whenever the following occur.
1) Tail Swap
2) landed at a point not listed in the original release.
3) On the ground at an intermediate stop for more than six (6) hours.
4) Air return.
5) Change of destination while still on the ground.
6) DMI that affects the performance of the aircraft.
7) DMI that restricts operations below FL 250.
8) Actual aircraft weight exceeds the flight planned weight by more than
10,000 lbs. (see exceptions GOM 9.48)
9) ADS-B component/system failure discovered prior to departure when
ADS-B airspace is planned on initial release.
(See GOM chapter 9 reference 9.6 pages 45-48 for details. This is simplified information.)


Question 14
How can the fire bell be silenced? (AOM Vol II, Pg. 8-8)
Correct Answer
• Extinguishing the Fire
• Pushing either Master Warning/Caution reset switch (wheel well horn continues to sound)
• Pulling the APU fire control switch in the right wheel well


Question 15
What does the EICAS message > DET FIRE APU indicate? (AOM Vol II, Pg. 8-13)
Correct Answer
• APU fire detection loops A or B has failed





Trusted by thousands of students and professionals worldwide Page 4 of 189