PY 290 Exam 1: Ultimate Review Guide with
Practice Questions, Answers, and Study Tips
Prenatal Development
Question 1: Which prenatal period has the greatest risk for structural abnormalities?
Answer: B) Embryonic
Rationale: The embryonic period (weeks 3-8) is when the major organs and
structures of the body are forming (organogenesis). Exposure to teratogens during
this critical window is most likely to cause major structural defects.
Question 13: Which factor is most associated with a higher likelihood of teratogenic
effects during pregnancy?
Answer: C) First trimester exposure
Rationale: The first trimester includes the embryonic period, the time of most rapid
organ formation. This makes the developing organism highly vulnerable to
environmental disruptions.
Question 8: Which stage of prenatal development involves rapid cell division?
Answer: A) Germinal
Rationale: The germinal period (first two weeks post-conception) is characterized by
rapid cell division and the implantation of the blastocyst into the uterine wall.
Question 25: If an embryo is exposed to a teratogen at five weeks gestation, what
organ or body part is most likely to be affected?
Answer: C) arms
Rationale: Each organ system has a critical period when it is most sensitive to
teratogens. The arms and heart are developing rapidly around the 5th week of
gestation.
Question 26: What is the critical period for development of the heart?
Answer: B) 3-6 weeks gestation
Rationale: The heart begins to form and beat very early in the embryonic stage,
making it particularly vulnerable to teratogens during this 3-6 week window.
,Question 28: Edna has been depressed for much of her pregnancy. How is this likely
to affect her newborn?
Answer: C) delays in motor skills
Rationale: Maternal stress and depression can lead to elevated levels of stress
hormones that cross the placenta, which has been linked to negative outcomes like
lower birth weight, irritability, and subtle delays in motor development in the
newborn.
Question 30: Fred, age 55, is planning to have a baby with his wife. Due to Fred's
advanced age, his child will be at an increased risk for __________.
Answer: A) schizophrenia
Rationale: While advanced maternal age is a well-known risk factor for certain
chromosomal abnormalities, advanced paternal age is associated with an increased
risk of new gene mutations linked to disorders such as schizophrenia and autism.
Childhood Development (Piaget, Vygotsky, Erikson, Freud)
Question 2: According to Piaget, during which stage do children begin to think
symbolically and use language?
Answer: B) Preoperational
Rationale: Piaget’s preoperational stage (approximately ages 2-7) is defined by the
emergence of symbolic thought, which allows for language development, pretend
play, and drawing.
Question 9: According to Piaget, object permanence develops during which stage?
Answer: A) Sensorimotor
Rationale: Object permanence, the understanding that objects continue to exist
even when they cannot be seen, is the primary cognitive milestone achieved during
the sensorimotor stage (birth to 2 years).
Question 10: Which of the following is a characteristic of the preoperational stage?
Answer: B) Egocentrism
Rationale: Egocentrism in Piaget’s theory refers to the preoperational child's
difficulty in taking another person's perspective. It does not mean selfishness, but a
cognitive inability to understand that others see the world differently.
Question 16: Piaget's concrete operational stage includes:
Answer: B) Logical thinking about concrete objects
Rationale: In the concrete operational stage (approximately ages 7-11), children gain
the ability to think logically, but their reasoning is limited to concrete, tangible
objects and events, not abstract or hypothetical concepts.
,Question 19: The ability to think hypothetically and use abstract reasoning is
characteristic of:
Answer: D) Formal operational stage
Rationale: Piaget’s formal operational stage (beginning around age 12) is marked by
the capacity for abstract, systematic, and hypothetical thinking. Adolescents can now
ponder concepts like justice and solve problems in their heads.
Question 5: At what age does Piaget's Formal Operational stage typically begin?
Answer: D) 12 years
Rationale: Piaget proposed that children enter the formal operational stage, marked
by abstract reasoning, around the age of 12.
Question 7: A child who believes inanimate objects have feelings is showing:
Answer: A) Animism
Rationale: Animism is the tendency to attribute life and intentionality to inanimate
objects. It is a hallmark of preoperational thought.
Question 24: During which stage do children typically develop conservation skills?
Answer: C) Concrete operational
Rationale: Conservation, the understanding that quantity remains the same despite
a change in appearance, is a key logical skill acquired in the concrete operational
stage.
Question 4: What does "scaffolding" refer to in Vygotsky's theory?
Answer: B) Support from adults to help a child learn
Rationale: Scaffolding is the temporary support provided by a more knowledgeable
person (like an adult or peer) that allows a child to perform a task within their Zone
of Proximal Development. The support is gradually removed as the child becomes
more competent.
Question 11: The "zone of proximal development" refers to:
Answer: B) Skills a child can perform with guidance
Rationale: Vygotsky’s Zone of Proximal Development (ZPD) is the gap between what
a learner can do independently and what they can achieve with guidance and
encouragement from a skilled partner.
Question 26: Which theorist emphasized the influence of culture and social
interaction on cognitive development?
Answer: C) Vygotsky
Rationale: Lev Vygotsky's sociocultural theory posits that cognitive development is
fundamentally a product of social interaction and is shaped by the tools, language,
and practices of one's culture.
Question 3: What did Erikson propose as the central crisis of adolescence?
Answer: C) Identity vs. Role Confusion
, Rationale: Erikson’s fifth stage of psychosocial development, Identity vs. Role
Confusion, is the central task of adolescence, during which individuals grapple with
questions of "Who am I?" and "What is my place in society?".
Question 12: Which Erikson stage is most relevant to middle adulthood?
Answer: C) Generativity vs. Stagnation
Rationale: Generativity vs. Stagnation is Erikson’s seventh stage, characteristic of
middle adulthood. It involves a focus on contributing to the next generation through
work, family, and community.
Question 21: The major psychosocial crisis in late adulthood is:
Answer: A) Integrity vs. Despair
Rationale: In late adulthood, Erikson proposed the crisis of Integrity vs. Despair,
where individuals reflect on their lives and either develop a sense of fulfillment
(integrity) or regret (despair).
Question 28: Which of the following best describes Erikson's stage of "Autonomy vs.
Shame and Doubt"?
Answer: B) Toddlerhood, learning independence
Rationale: Autonomy vs. Shame and Doubt is Erikson’s second stage, occurring
during toddlerhood. It centers on children learning to exert their will and control over
their own actions, developing a sense of independence.
Question 20: What do the theories of Freud, Erikson, and Piaget have in common in
regard to development?
Answer: A) they take a stage approach
Rationale: Despite their different focuses, all three theorists proposed that
development proceeds through a series of distinct, sequential stages, each with its
own unique characteristics and challenges.
Question 17: According to Freud, which stage involves the Oedipus/Electra
complex?
Answer: C) Phallic
Rationale: Freud's phallic stage (ages 3-6) is characterized by the libido centering on
the genitals and the emergence of the Oedipus complex (in boys) and Electra
complex (in girls).
Question 29: How did Freud view the newborn?
Answer: D) aggressive and selfish
Rationale: Freud believed newborns are driven by the id, the primitive and
instinctual part of the personality that operates on the pleasure principle, seeking
immediate gratification of its needs (which can be seen as aggressive and
demanding).
Practice Questions, Answers, and Study Tips
Prenatal Development
Question 1: Which prenatal period has the greatest risk for structural abnormalities?
Answer: B) Embryonic
Rationale: The embryonic period (weeks 3-8) is when the major organs and
structures of the body are forming (organogenesis). Exposure to teratogens during
this critical window is most likely to cause major structural defects.
Question 13: Which factor is most associated with a higher likelihood of teratogenic
effects during pregnancy?
Answer: C) First trimester exposure
Rationale: The first trimester includes the embryonic period, the time of most rapid
organ formation. This makes the developing organism highly vulnerable to
environmental disruptions.
Question 8: Which stage of prenatal development involves rapid cell division?
Answer: A) Germinal
Rationale: The germinal period (first two weeks post-conception) is characterized by
rapid cell division and the implantation of the blastocyst into the uterine wall.
Question 25: If an embryo is exposed to a teratogen at five weeks gestation, what
organ or body part is most likely to be affected?
Answer: C) arms
Rationale: Each organ system has a critical period when it is most sensitive to
teratogens. The arms and heart are developing rapidly around the 5th week of
gestation.
Question 26: What is the critical period for development of the heart?
Answer: B) 3-6 weeks gestation
Rationale: The heart begins to form and beat very early in the embryonic stage,
making it particularly vulnerable to teratogens during this 3-6 week window.
,Question 28: Edna has been depressed for much of her pregnancy. How is this likely
to affect her newborn?
Answer: C) delays in motor skills
Rationale: Maternal stress and depression can lead to elevated levels of stress
hormones that cross the placenta, which has been linked to negative outcomes like
lower birth weight, irritability, and subtle delays in motor development in the
newborn.
Question 30: Fred, age 55, is planning to have a baby with his wife. Due to Fred's
advanced age, his child will be at an increased risk for __________.
Answer: A) schizophrenia
Rationale: While advanced maternal age is a well-known risk factor for certain
chromosomal abnormalities, advanced paternal age is associated with an increased
risk of new gene mutations linked to disorders such as schizophrenia and autism.
Childhood Development (Piaget, Vygotsky, Erikson, Freud)
Question 2: According to Piaget, during which stage do children begin to think
symbolically and use language?
Answer: B) Preoperational
Rationale: Piaget’s preoperational stage (approximately ages 2-7) is defined by the
emergence of symbolic thought, which allows for language development, pretend
play, and drawing.
Question 9: According to Piaget, object permanence develops during which stage?
Answer: A) Sensorimotor
Rationale: Object permanence, the understanding that objects continue to exist
even when they cannot be seen, is the primary cognitive milestone achieved during
the sensorimotor stage (birth to 2 years).
Question 10: Which of the following is a characteristic of the preoperational stage?
Answer: B) Egocentrism
Rationale: Egocentrism in Piaget’s theory refers to the preoperational child's
difficulty in taking another person's perspective. It does not mean selfishness, but a
cognitive inability to understand that others see the world differently.
Question 16: Piaget's concrete operational stage includes:
Answer: B) Logical thinking about concrete objects
Rationale: In the concrete operational stage (approximately ages 7-11), children gain
the ability to think logically, but their reasoning is limited to concrete, tangible
objects and events, not abstract or hypothetical concepts.
,Question 19: The ability to think hypothetically and use abstract reasoning is
characteristic of:
Answer: D) Formal operational stage
Rationale: Piaget’s formal operational stage (beginning around age 12) is marked by
the capacity for abstract, systematic, and hypothetical thinking. Adolescents can now
ponder concepts like justice and solve problems in their heads.
Question 5: At what age does Piaget's Formal Operational stage typically begin?
Answer: D) 12 years
Rationale: Piaget proposed that children enter the formal operational stage, marked
by abstract reasoning, around the age of 12.
Question 7: A child who believes inanimate objects have feelings is showing:
Answer: A) Animism
Rationale: Animism is the tendency to attribute life and intentionality to inanimate
objects. It is a hallmark of preoperational thought.
Question 24: During which stage do children typically develop conservation skills?
Answer: C) Concrete operational
Rationale: Conservation, the understanding that quantity remains the same despite
a change in appearance, is a key logical skill acquired in the concrete operational
stage.
Question 4: What does "scaffolding" refer to in Vygotsky's theory?
Answer: B) Support from adults to help a child learn
Rationale: Scaffolding is the temporary support provided by a more knowledgeable
person (like an adult or peer) that allows a child to perform a task within their Zone
of Proximal Development. The support is gradually removed as the child becomes
more competent.
Question 11: The "zone of proximal development" refers to:
Answer: B) Skills a child can perform with guidance
Rationale: Vygotsky’s Zone of Proximal Development (ZPD) is the gap between what
a learner can do independently and what they can achieve with guidance and
encouragement from a skilled partner.
Question 26: Which theorist emphasized the influence of culture and social
interaction on cognitive development?
Answer: C) Vygotsky
Rationale: Lev Vygotsky's sociocultural theory posits that cognitive development is
fundamentally a product of social interaction and is shaped by the tools, language,
and practices of one's culture.
Question 3: What did Erikson propose as the central crisis of adolescence?
Answer: C) Identity vs. Role Confusion
, Rationale: Erikson’s fifth stage of psychosocial development, Identity vs. Role
Confusion, is the central task of adolescence, during which individuals grapple with
questions of "Who am I?" and "What is my place in society?".
Question 12: Which Erikson stage is most relevant to middle adulthood?
Answer: C) Generativity vs. Stagnation
Rationale: Generativity vs. Stagnation is Erikson’s seventh stage, characteristic of
middle adulthood. It involves a focus on contributing to the next generation through
work, family, and community.
Question 21: The major psychosocial crisis in late adulthood is:
Answer: A) Integrity vs. Despair
Rationale: In late adulthood, Erikson proposed the crisis of Integrity vs. Despair,
where individuals reflect on their lives and either develop a sense of fulfillment
(integrity) or regret (despair).
Question 28: Which of the following best describes Erikson's stage of "Autonomy vs.
Shame and Doubt"?
Answer: B) Toddlerhood, learning independence
Rationale: Autonomy vs. Shame and Doubt is Erikson’s second stage, occurring
during toddlerhood. It centers on children learning to exert their will and control over
their own actions, developing a sense of independence.
Question 20: What do the theories of Freud, Erikson, and Piaget have in common in
regard to development?
Answer: A) they take a stage approach
Rationale: Despite their different focuses, all three theorists proposed that
development proceeds through a series of distinct, sequential stages, each with its
own unique characteristics and challenges.
Question 17: According to Freud, which stage involves the Oedipus/Electra
complex?
Answer: C) Phallic
Rationale: Freud's phallic stage (ages 3-6) is characterized by the libido centering on
the genitals and the emergence of the Oedipus complex (in boys) and Electra
complex (in girls).
Question 29: How did Freud view the newborn?
Answer: D) aggressive and selfish
Rationale: Freud believed newborns are driven by the id, the primitive and
instinctual part of the personality that operates on the pleasure principle, seeking
immediate gratification of its needs (which can be seen as aggressive and
demanding).
