ATI MATERNAL NEWBORN
Proctored Exam100
Practice Questions with
Detailed Rationales
Latest 2025/2026 | NGN-
Style complete OB coverage
1|Page
,ANTEPARTUM CARE
(Questions 1-25)
Question 1
A nurse is teaching a client who is at 12 weeks' gestation and has HIV. Which of the
following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?
A. "You will need to be in isolation after delivery."
B. "You should abstain from sexual intercourse throughout the pregnancy."
C. "You can breastfeed your newborn to provide passive immunity."
D. "You should continue to take zidovudine throughout the pregnancy."
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The nurse should inform the client that taking prescription antiviral medication
(zidovudine) every day decreases the risk of transmission of HIV to her newborn. HIV can
be transmitted through breast milk, so breastfeeding is contraindicated (C). The client can
continue sexual activity with precautions (B). Isolation after delivery is not required (A) .
Question 2
A primigravida at 34 weeks gestation reports a pounding headache for 4 hours, sees
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,"spots," and has new epigastric pain. BP is 160/110 mm Hg, urine dipstick shows +2
protein. Which action should the nurse take FIRST?
A. Encourage rest in left-lateral position and recheck BP in 1 hour
B. Notify the provider immediately and prepare for possible magnesium sulfate
C. Offer acetaminophen and dim the lights
D. Start an IV of normal saline at 125 mL/hr
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Classic signs of severe pre-eclampsia (headache, visual changes, epigastric pain,
BP ≥160/110, proteinuria) constitute an obstetric emergency. Immediate provider
notification and seizure precautions (magnesium sulfate) are the priority (ABC—airway
risk if seizure). Delaying necessary intervention (A) could result in eclampsia. Treating
symptoms only (C) is insufficient. Routine fluids (D) are not specific to severe
hypertension .
Question 3
A nurse is caring for a client who is at 28 weeks gestation and reports sudden, painless
vaginal bleeding "like a period." The FHR is 140s, uterus is soft, and there is no abdominal
tenderness. Which finding should the nurse evaluate NEXT?
A. Cervical dilation on sterile speculum exam
B. Maternal tachycardia and orthostatic vital signs
C. Fetal movement count
D. Contraction pattern on tocodynamometer
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, Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Painless bleeding with a soft uterus suggests placenta previa. The next priority
is to assess maternal hemodynamic stability (blood loss, tachycardia, orthostatic changes)
before any digital exam (which is contraindicated until previa is ruled out). A vaginal exam
(A) could cause catastrophic hemorrhage. Fetal movement (C) and contractions (D) are less
urgent than maternal stability .
Question 4
A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is at 33 weeks gestation and has
placenta previa with bleeding. Which prescription should the nurse clarify with the
provider?
A. Insert a large-bore IV catheter
B. Perform a vaginal exam
C. Perform continuous external fetal monitoring
D. Obtain a blood sample for laboratory testing
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: When a client has placenta previa, the placenta implants in the lower part of the
uterus and may obstruct the cervical os. Any manipulation, including a vaginal exam, can
cause tearing of the placenta and increased bleeding. The nurse should clarify this
prescription. The other interventions (IV access, fetal monitoring, lab tests) are
appropriate .
4|Page
Proctored Exam100
Practice Questions with
Detailed Rationales
Latest 2025/2026 | NGN-
Style complete OB coverage
1|Page
,ANTEPARTUM CARE
(Questions 1-25)
Question 1
A nurse is teaching a client who is at 12 weeks' gestation and has HIV. Which of the
following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?
A. "You will need to be in isolation after delivery."
B. "You should abstain from sexual intercourse throughout the pregnancy."
C. "You can breastfeed your newborn to provide passive immunity."
D. "You should continue to take zidovudine throughout the pregnancy."
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The nurse should inform the client that taking prescription antiviral medication
(zidovudine) every day decreases the risk of transmission of HIV to her newborn. HIV can
be transmitted through breast milk, so breastfeeding is contraindicated (C). The client can
continue sexual activity with precautions (B). Isolation after delivery is not required (A) .
Question 2
A primigravida at 34 weeks gestation reports a pounding headache for 4 hours, sees
2|Page
,"spots," and has new epigastric pain. BP is 160/110 mm Hg, urine dipstick shows +2
protein. Which action should the nurse take FIRST?
A. Encourage rest in left-lateral position and recheck BP in 1 hour
B. Notify the provider immediately and prepare for possible magnesium sulfate
C. Offer acetaminophen and dim the lights
D. Start an IV of normal saline at 125 mL/hr
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Classic signs of severe pre-eclampsia (headache, visual changes, epigastric pain,
BP ≥160/110, proteinuria) constitute an obstetric emergency. Immediate provider
notification and seizure precautions (magnesium sulfate) are the priority (ABC—airway
risk if seizure). Delaying necessary intervention (A) could result in eclampsia. Treating
symptoms only (C) is insufficient. Routine fluids (D) are not specific to severe
hypertension .
Question 3
A nurse is caring for a client who is at 28 weeks gestation and reports sudden, painless
vaginal bleeding "like a period." The FHR is 140s, uterus is soft, and there is no abdominal
tenderness. Which finding should the nurse evaluate NEXT?
A. Cervical dilation on sterile speculum exam
B. Maternal tachycardia and orthostatic vital signs
C. Fetal movement count
D. Contraction pattern on tocodynamometer
3|Page
, Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Painless bleeding with a soft uterus suggests placenta previa. The next priority
is to assess maternal hemodynamic stability (blood loss, tachycardia, orthostatic changes)
before any digital exam (which is contraindicated until previa is ruled out). A vaginal exam
(A) could cause catastrophic hemorrhage. Fetal movement (C) and contractions (D) are less
urgent than maternal stability .
Question 4
A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is at 33 weeks gestation and has
placenta previa with bleeding. Which prescription should the nurse clarify with the
provider?
A. Insert a large-bore IV catheter
B. Perform a vaginal exam
C. Perform continuous external fetal monitoring
D. Obtain a blood sample for laboratory testing
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: When a client has placenta previa, the placenta implants in the lower part of the
uterus and may obstruct the cervical os. Any manipulation, including a vaginal exam, can
cause tearing of the placenta and increased bleeding. The nurse should clarify this
prescription. The other interventions (IV access, fetal monitoring, lab tests) are
appropriate .
4|Page
