NCLEX Practice Questions 2026 |
Comprehensive Practice Questions
with Answers & Detailed Rationales
After receiving report at the start of the evening shift, which of the
following clients should the nurse attend to first?
(a) A 34-year-old man undergoing treatment for non-Hodgkin
lymphoma with a potassium level of 7.5 mEq/L.
(b) A 21-year-old woman with sickle cell anemia with pain of 6 on a
scale of 1-10.
(c) A 55-year-old woman with ovarian cancer waiting to be discharged.
(d) A 72-year-old man with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
(COPD) and a pulse oximetry of 96% on room air. - answer-Correct
answer: (a) A 34-year-old man undergoing treatment for non-Hodgkin
lymphoma with a potassium level of 7.5 mEq/L.
Rationale: Hyperkalemia is a potentially serious condition that, in a
client undergoing treatment for non-Hodgkin lymphoma, could indicate
tumour lysis syndrome. Patient (b) should be attended to, but her
condition is not as urgent. Patients (c) and (d) do not require immediate
attention.
, A 34-year-old woman who developed Stevens-Johnson syndrome while
undergoing treatment with carbamazepine (Tegretol) is being
transferred in stable condition from the intensive care unit to the
medical unit. There are 4 beds available. The nurse knows the best
choice of roommates for this client is which of the following?
(a) A 40-year-old man with methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus
(MRSA).
(b) A 28-year-old woman diagnosed with diarrhea.
(c) A 72-year-old man with fever of unknown origin.
(d) A 68-year-old woman with atrial fibrillation . - answer-Correct
answer: (d) A 68-year-old woman with atrial fibrillation.
Rationale: A client with Stevens-Johnson syndrome is likely to have
severe skin integrity issues, including blistering and skin shedding,
which can place the client at high risk for infection. Atrial fibrillation is
not an infectious process. All other patients may be an infection risk for
an individual with altered skin integrity.
A 72-year-old man who had a stroke is being transferred from a medical
unit to a rehabilitation centre. The nurse case manager is assisting in
the process. The nurse knows that the goals of case management
include which of the following? Select all that apply.
(a) Improving the coordination of care
(b) Increasing referrals to local organizations
Comprehensive Practice Questions
with Answers & Detailed Rationales
After receiving report at the start of the evening shift, which of the
following clients should the nurse attend to first?
(a) A 34-year-old man undergoing treatment for non-Hodgkin
lymphoma with a potassium level of 7.5 mEq/L.
(b) A 21-year-old woman with sickle cell anemia with pain of 6 on a
scale of 1-10.
(c) A 55-year-old woman with ovarian cancer waiting to be discharged.
(d) A 72-year-old man with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
(COPD) and a pulse oximetry of 96% on room air. - answer-Correct
answer: (a) A 34-year-old man undergoing treatment for non-Hodgkin
lymphoma with a potassium level of 7.5 mEq/L.
Rationale: Hyperkalemia is a potentially serious condition that, in a
client undergoing treatment for non-Hodgkin lymphoma, could indicate
tumour lysis syndrome. Patient (b) should be attended to, but her
condition is not as urgent. Patients (c) and (d) do not require immediate
attention.
, A 34-year-old woman who developed Stevens-Johnson syndrome while
undergoing treatment with carbamazepine (Tegretol) is being
transferred in stable condition from the intensive care unit to the
medical unit. There are 4 beds available. The nurse knows the best
choice of roommates for this client is which of the following?
(a) A 40-year-old man with methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus
(MRSA).
(b) A 28-year-old woman diagnosed with diarrhea.
(c) A 72-year-old man with fever of unknown origin.
(d) A 68-year-old woman with atrial fibrillation . - answer-Correct
answer: (d) A 68-year-old woman with atrial fibrillation.
Rationale: A client with Stevens-Johnson syndrome is likely to have
severe skin integrity issues, including blistering and skin shedding,
which can place the client at high risk for infection. Atrial fibrillation is
not an infectious process. All other patients may be an infection risk for
an individual with altered skin integrity.
A 72-year-old man who had a stroke is being transferred from a medical
unit to a rehabilitation centre. The nurse case manager is assisting in
the process. The nurse knows that the goals of case management
include which of the following? Select all that apply.
(a) Improving the coordination of care
(b) Increasing referrals to local organizations
