ABU Urology Certification Examination
Exam Questions and Correct Answers
(Verified Answers) Plus Rationales 2026
Q&A | Instant Download Pdf
1. The most common cause of urethral stricture in adult males is:
A. Trauma
B. Infection
C. Iatrogenic injury
D. Idiopathic
Idiopathic causes account for the majority of adult male urethral
strictures, particularly in the bulbar urethra.
2. The initial imaging modality of choice for suspected renal colic is:
A. Intravenous pyelogram (IVP)
B. Ultrasound
C. Non-contrast CT scan of the kidneys, ureters, and bladder (NCCT
KUB)
D. MRI
NCCT KUB is highly sensitive and specific for detecting ureteric stones
and is the standard first-line imaging.
3. The most common site of origin for renal cell carcinoma is:
A. Renal pelvis
B. Proximal tubules of the nephron
,C. Collecting ducts
D. Distal tubules
Renal cell carcinoma typically arises from the proximal tubular
epithelium.
4. Which of the following is the first-line treatment for localized
prostate cancer in a 65-year-old man with no significant
comorbidities?
A. Chemotherapy
B. Active surveillance
C. Hormonal therapy
D. Radical prostatectomy
Radical prostatectomy is standard for fit patients with localized disease
and a life expectancy >10 years.
5. A 35-year-old man presents with painless scrotal swelling.
Ultrasound shows a solid intratesticular mass. The most appropriate
next step is:
A. Observation
B. Radical inguinal orchiectomy
C. Testicular biopsy
D. Scrotal exploration
Any solid intratesticular mass is considered malignant until proven
otherwise, and inguinal orchiectomy is diagnostic and therapeutic.
6. The classic triad of renal cell carcinoma includes:
A. Hematuria, flank pain, and palpable mass
B. Fever, weight loss, and hematuria
C. Hypertension, proteinuria, and edema
D. Dysuria, urgency, and frequency
, The triad of hematuria, flank pain, and palpable mass is characteristic
but occurs in only 10-15% of patients.
7. The drug of choice for medical management of overactive bladder
is:
A. Alpha-blockers
B. Beta-blockers
C. Diuretics
D. Antimuscarinics (e.g., oxybutynin)
Antimuscarinic agents reduce detrusor overactivity and are first-line
pharmacologic therapy.
8. A 50-year-old man with benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) and
bothersome lower urinary tract symptoms should first receive:
A. Surgery
B. Alpha-1 adrenergic blockers
C. Chemotherapy
D. Anticholinergics
Alpha-1 blockers are first-line medical therapy for symptomatic BPH due
to their rapid relief of obstructive symptoms.
9. The gold standard for diagnosis of vesicoureteral reflux in children
is:
A. Ultrasound
B. IVP
C. Voiding cystourethrogram (VCUG)
D. MRI
VCUG allows direct visualization of urine reflux from the bladder into
the ureters and kidneys.
10. The most common organism causing acute bacterial prostatitis is:
Exam Questions and Correct Answers
(Verified Answers) Plus Rationales 2026
Q&A | Instant Download Pdf
1. The most common cause of urethral stricture in adult males is:
A. Trauma
B. Infection
C. Iatrogenic injury
D. Idiopathic
Idiopathic causes account for the majority of adult male urethral
strictures, particularly in the bulbar urethra.
2. The initial imaging modality of choice for suspected renal colic is:
A. Intravenous pyelogram (IVP)
B. Ultrasound
C. Non-contrast CT scan of the kidneys, ureters, and bladder (NCCT
KUB)
D. MRI
NCCT KUB is highly sensitive and specific for detecting ureteric stones
and is the standard first-line imaging.
3. The most common site of origin for renal cell carcinoma is:
A. Renal pelvis
B. Proximal tubules of the nephron
,C. Collecting ducts
D. Distal tubules
Renal cell carcinoma typically arises from the proximal tubular
epithelium.
4. Which of the following is the first-line treatment for localized
prostate cancer in a 65-year-old man with no significant
comorbidities?
A. Chemotherapy
B. Active surveillance
C. Hormonal therapy
D. Radical prostatectomy
Radical prostatectomy is standard for fit patients with localized disease
and a life expectancy >10 years.
5. A 35-year-old man presents with painless scrotal swelling.
Ultrasound shows a solid intratesticular mass. The most appropriate
next step is:
A. Observation
B. Radical inguinal orchiectomy
C. Testicular biopsy
D. Scrotal exploration
Any solid intratesticular mass is considered malignant until proven
otherwise, and inguinal orchiectomy is diagnostic and therapeutic.
6. The classic triad of renal cell carcinoma includes:
A. Hematuria, flank pain, and palpable mass
B. Fever, weight loss, and hematuria
C. Hypertension, proteinuria, and edema
D. Dysuria, urgency, and frequency
, The triad of hematuria, flank pain, and palpable mass is characteristic
but occurs in only 10-15% of patients.
7. The drug of choice for medical management of overactive bladder
is:
A. Alpha-blockers
B. Beta-blockers
C. Diuretics
D. Antimuscarinics (e.g., oxybutynin)
Antimuscarinic agents reduce detrusor overactivity and are first-line
pharmacologic therapy.
8. A 50-year-old man with benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) and
bothersome lower urinary tract symptoms should first receive:
A. Surgery
B. Alpha-1 adrenergic blockers
C. Chemotherapy
D. Anticholinergics
Alpha-1 blockers are first-line medical therapy for symptomatic BPH due
to their rapid relief of obstructive symptoms.
9. The gold standard for diagnosis of vesicoureteral reflux in children
is:
A. Ultrasound
B. IVP
C. Voiding cystourethrogram (VCUG)
D. MRI
VCUG allows direct visualization of urine reflux from the bladder into
the ureters and kidneys.
10. The most common organism causing acute bacterial prostatitis is:
