ADULT GERONTOLOGY ACUTE CARE NP
EXAM (AGACNP-BC) | COMPLETE EXAM
WITH CORRECT 100% VERIFIED ANSWERS
A 72-year-old patient presents with sudden-onset dyspnea,
pleuritic chest pain, and unilateral leg swelling. Most likely
diagnosis:
A. Pulmonary Embolism
B. Pneumonia
C. COPD exacerbation
D. Heart Failure
Answer: A
Rationale: Acute dyspnea, pleuritic pain, and unilateral leg
swelling suggest PE.
2. First-line diagnostic test for suspected PE:
A. CT Pulmonary Angiography
B. Chest X-ray
C. Echocardiogram
D. V/Q scan only
Answer: A
,Rationale: CTA is the gold standard for detecting pulmonary
emboli.
3. A 70-year-old patient presents with crushing chest pain,
diaphoresis, and nausea. ECG shows ST elevation.
Diagnosis:
A. STEMI
B. NSTEMI
C. Unstable Angina
D. Pericarditis
Answer: A
Rationale: ST elevation with classic symptoms indicates
STEMI; emergent reperfusion required.
4. Emergent management for STEMI:
A. Percutaneous Coronary Intervention (PCI)
B. Beta-blocker only
C. ACE inhibitor only
D. Statin only
Answer: A
Rationale: PCI restores coronary perfusion promptly.
,5. A 75-year-old patient presents with fever, productive
cough, hypotension, and tachypnea. Chest X-ray shows
lobar consolidation. Diagnosis:
A. Severe Community-Acquired Pneumonia
B. COPD exacerbation
C. Pulmonary Embolism
D. Asthma
Answer: A
Rationale: Fever, hypotension, tachypnea, and
consolidation indicate severe CAP requiring ICU-level care.
6. First-line empiric antibiotic therapy for severe CAP in
older adults:
A. Beta-lactam + macrolide or respiratory fluoroquinolone
B. Macrolide only
C. Beta-blocker only
D. NSAID only
Answer: A
Rationale: Combination therapy covers typical and atypical
pathogens in severe CAP.
, 7. A 72-year-old patient presents with hypotension,
tachycardia, and confusion. Labs reveal elevated lactate.
Diagnosis:
A. Septic Shock
B. Cardiogenic Shock
C. Hypovolemic Shock
D. Neurogenic Shock
Answer: A
Rationale: Hypotension with elevated lactate indicates
tissue hypoperfusion; sepsis is likely source.
8. First-line management of septic shock:
A. Rapid IV fluids, broad-spectrum antibiotics
B. Vasopressors only
C. Beta-blockers only
D. Diuretics only
Answer: A
Rationale: Early fluids and empiric antibiotics improve
survival in septic shock.
EXAM (AGACNP-BC) | COMPLETE EXAM
WITH CORRECT 100% VERIFIED ANSWERS
A 72-year-old patient presents with sudden-onset dyspnea,
pleuritic chest pain, and unilateral leg swelling. Most likely
diagnosis:
A. Pulmonary Embolism
B. Pneumonia
C. COPD exacerbation
D. Heart Failure
Answer: A
Rationale: Acute dyspnea, pleuritic pain, and unilateral leg
swelling suggest PE.
2. First-line diagnostic test for suspected PE:
A. CT Pulmonary Angiography
B. Chest X-ray
C. Echocardiogram
D. V/Q scan only
Answer: A
,Rationale: CTA is the gold standard for detecting pulmonary
emboli.
3. A 70-year-old patient presents with crushing chest pain,
diaphoresis, and nausea. ECG shows ST elevation.
Diagnosis:
A. STEMI
B. NSTEMI
C. Unstable Angina
D. Pericarditis
Answer: A
Rationale: ST elevation with classic symptoms indicates
STEMI; emergent reperfusion required.
4. Emergent management for STEMI:
A. Percutaneous Coronary Intervention (PCI)
B. Beta-blocker only
C. ACE inhibitor only
D. Statin only
Answer: A
Rationale: PCI restores coronary perfusion promptly.
,5. A 75-year-old patient presents with fever, productive
cough, hypotension, and tachypnea. Chest X-ray shows
lobar consolidation. Diagnosis:
A. Severe Community-Acquired Pneumonia
B. COPD exacerbation
C. Pulmonary Embolism
D. Asthma
Answer: A
Rationale: Fever, hypotension, tachypnea, and
consolidation indicate severe CAP requiring ICU-level care.
6. First-line empiric antibiotic therapy for severe CAP in
older adults:
A. Beta-lactam + macrolide or respiratory fluoroquinolone
B. Macrolide only
C. Beta-blocker only
D. NSAID only
Answer: A
Rationale: Combination therapy covers typical and atypical
pathogens in severe CAP.
, 7. A 72-year-old patient presents with hypotension,
tachycardia, and confusion. Labs reveal elevated lactate.
Diagnosis:
A. Septic Shock
B. Cardiogenic Shock
C. Hypovolemic Shock
D. Neurogenic Shock
Answer: A
Rationale: Hypotension with elevated lactate indicates
tissue hypoperfusion; sepsis is likely source.
8. First-line management of septic shock:
A. Rapid IV fluids, broad-spectrum antibiotics
B. Vasopressors only
C. Beta-blockers only
D. Diuretics only
Answer: A
Rationale: Early fluids and empiric antibiotics improve
survival in septic shock.
