WGU D313 ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY
OBJECTIVE ASSESSMENT Actual Exam
2026/2027 Complete Questions and Verified
Answers Pass Guaranteed - A+ Graded
SECTION 1: INTRODUCTION TO ANATOMY & PHYSIOLOGY
Q1: Which term describes a structure that is closer to the point of attachment or origin?
A. Superior
B. Inferior
C. Proximal. [CORRECT]
D. Distal
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Proximal means closer to the point of attachment or origin, such as the elbow being
proximal to the wrist (C). Distal (D) means farther away. Superior (A) means above, inferior (B)
means below. These terms are used for different spatial relationships.
Q2: A patient has a wound on the anterior surface of their hand. Which directional term best
describes this location?
A. Palmar. [CORRECT]
B. Dorsal
C. Proximal
D. Lateral
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Palmar (A) refers to the anterior surface of the hand (palm side). Dorsal (B) refers to
the posterior surface (back of hand). Proximal (C) indicates position relative to attachment point,
and lateral (D) means away from the midline. Anterior is synonymous with palmar in hand
anatomy.
Q3: Which body plane divides the body into superior and inferior portions?
A. Sagittal
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B. Frontal (coronal)
C. Transverse (horizontal). [CORRECT]
D. Midsagittal
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The transverse or horizontal plane (C) divides the body into superior (upper) and
inferior (lower) portions. The sagittal plane (A, D) divides into left and right portions, while the
frontal/coronal plane (B) divides into anterior and posterior portions.
Q4: During a surgical procedure, the surgeon makes an incision through the skin and into the
peritoneal cavity. Which body cavity is being accessed?
A. Pleural cavity
B. Pericardial cavity
C. Abdominal cavity. [CORRECT]
D. Cranial cavity
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The peritoneal cavity is located within the abdominal cavity (C), which is part of the
abdominopelvic cavity. The pleural cavity (A) surrounds the lungs, the pericardial cavity (B)
surrounds the heart, and the cranial cavity (D) contains the brain.
Q5: A patient presents with pain in the right upper quadrant (RUQ). Which organ is most likely
causing the pain?
A. Appendix
B. Liver. [CORRECT]
C. Urinary bladder
D. Sigmoid colon
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The liver is located primarily in the right upper quadrant (RUQ) (B). The appendix
(A) is in the right lower quadrant (RLQ), while the urinary bladder (C) and sigmoid colon (D)
are located in the pelvic and left lower regions respectively.
Q6: Which of the following is an example of positive feedback in the human body?
A. Regulation of blood glucose levels
B. Maintenance of body temperature
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C. Control of blood pressure
D. Release of oxytocin during childbirth. [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Oxytocin release during childbirth (D) is a positive feedback mechanism where
uterine contractions stimulate more oxytocin release, amplifying the response until delivery.
Blood glucose regulation (A), temperature control (B), and blood pressure maintenance (C) are
all negative feedback mechanisms that reverse changes to maintain homeostasis.
Q7: Which level of organization represents the smallest unit of life?
A. Chemical level
B. Cellular level. [CORRECT]
C. Tissue level
D. Organ level
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The cell (B) is the smallest unit of life capable of performing all life processes. While
the chemical level (A) includes atoms and molecules, these are not alive. Tissues (C) and organs
(D) represent higher levels of organization composed of cells.
Q8: A patient has elevated blood pressure. Which component of homeostatic regulation serves as
the control center in this feedback loop?
A. Baroreceptors in blood vessels
B. Cardiovascular center in the medulla oblongata. [CORRECT]
C. Heart muscle
D. Blood vessels
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The cardiovascular center in the medulla oblongata (B) serves as the control center,
processing input from baroreceptors (A, the receptors) and coordinating responses via effectors
such as the heart (C) and blood vessels (D) to regulate blood pressure.
Q9: Which anatomical region is located inferior to the umbilical region and medial to the
inguinal (iliac) regions?
A. Epigastric region
B. Hypogastric (pubic) region. [CORRECT]
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C. Lumbar region
D. Hypochondriac region
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The hypogastric (pubic) region (B) is located directly inferior to the umbilical region
and medial to the left and right iliac (inguinal) regions. The epigastric region (A) is superior to
the umbilical region, lumbar regions (C) are lateral to the umbilical region, and hypochondriac
regions (D) are superior and lateral.
Q10: In maintaining homeostasis, which of the following best describes the set point?
A. The maximum value a variable can reach
B. The minimum value a variable can reach
C. The ideal or target value for a controlled variable. [CORRECT]
D. The range of all possible values for a variable
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The set point (C) is the ideal or target value that the body attempts to maintain for a
given variable, such as 98.6°F for body temperature or 120/80 mmHg for blood pressure. The
normal range represents acceptable fluctuations around this set point.
SECTION 2: CHEMISTRY OF LIFE AND CELL BIOLOGY
Q11: Which type of chemical bond involves the sharing of electron pairs between atoms?
A. Ionic bond
B. Covalent bond. [CORRECT]
C. Hydrogen bond
D. Van der Waals interaction
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Covalent bonds (B) involve the sharing of electron pairs between atoms to achieve
stability. Ionic bonds (A) involve electron transfer creating charged ions. Hydrogen bonds (C) are
weak attractions between partially positive hydrogen and negative atoms, and Van der Waals
interactions (D) are weak temporary dipole attractions.
Q12: Which organic compound serves as the primary energy source for cellular activities and is
classified as a monosaccharide?
A. Glycogen