APEA Pre-Predictor
APEA Pre-Predictor 2026/2027 (Actual Exam) – 850+
Questions with Correct Answers & Rationales | Complete
NP Board Exam Study Guide || Complete A+ Guide
Academic Achiever Stuvia
This Document Contains:
❖ APEA Pre-Predictor
❖ Multiple Choice
❖ Actual Exam
❖Questions and Correct Answers
❖Rationales
❖Latest Update 2026/2027
❖Complete A+ Guide
,1. A 15-year-old high school student presents with a mild sore throat and low-
grade fever that has persisted for about 3 weeks. She reports general malaise,
fatigue, and loss of appetite. The NP suspects mononucleosis. Which of the
following is the LEAST appropriate intervention?
A. Palpate the lymph nodes and spleen
B. Examine the posterior oropharynx for petechiae
C. Obtain a CBC, throat culture, and heterophil antibody test
D. Obtain a urinalysis and serum for LFTs and amylase
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Mononucleosis is caused by the Epstein-Barr virus, commonly seen in ages
15-24. Signs include fatigue, malaise, anorexia, tonsillar exudates, and posterior cervical
lymphadenopathy. Splenomegaly may be present. Diagnosis is typically made using the
Monospot test, with CBC showing neutropenia and lymphocytosis. Urinalysis and serum
amylase are not indicated for routine mono diagnosis and would be the least
appropriate intervention .
2. A 32-year-old male patient complains of urinary frequency and burning on
urination for 3 days. Urinalysis reveals bacteriuria and positive nitrites. He denies
any past history of urinary tract infections. The initial treatment should be:
A. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim) for 7-10 days
B. Ciprofloxacin (Cipro) for 3-5 days
C. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole for 3 days
D. 750 mg ciprofloxacin as a one-time dose
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX) is appropriate for UTIs in most
patients. However, in men, the appropriate treatment duration is 7-10 days. Women
with uncomplicated UTI may be treated for 3 days. If community resistance to TMP-SMX
exceeds 20%, another agent should be substituted .
3. A patient presents with a pruritic rash on both knees with visible silver scales.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Eczema
B. Psoriasis
C. Contact dermatitis
D. Tinea corporis
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Psoriasis presents as well-demarcated, erythematous plaques with silvery
, scales, typically on extensor surfaces such as knees and elbows. Unlike eczema, it is not
primarily moist or weepy, and it lacks the central clearing seen in fungal infections .
4. A 6-year-old presents with fever, pharyngitis, and a sandpaper-like rash sparing
the face. A rapid strep test is positive. What is the diagnosis?
A. Measles
B. Scarlet fever
C. Rubella
D. Roseola
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The sandpaper-like rash with cervical lymphadenopathy and positive strep
test indicates scarlet fever, caused by Group A Streptococcus. The rash spares the face
and is caused by erythrogenic toxin. Treatment with antibiotics is indicated to prevent
complications .
5. What wet-mount finding confirms bacterial vaginosis?
A. Hyphae and spores
B. Squamous epithelial cells with stippling, no lactobacillus
C. Organisms with undulating flagellum
D. Clear cytoplasm with many lactobacillus
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Clue cells (squamous epithelial cells with stippled appearance due to adherent
bacteria) and the absence of lactobacillus are diagnostic for bacterial vaginosis. Hyphae
and spores indicate candidiasis, while flagellated organisms suggest trichomoniasis .
Part 2: Cardiovascular Disorders
6. A 44-year-old female patient has diabetes. Her total cholesterol (TC) is 250
mg/dL, LDL = 190 mg/dL, HDL = 25 mg/dL, and triglycerides = 344 mg/dL. What
agent would have the greatest effect on improving her lipid profile and reducing
morbidity and mortality associated with dyslipidemia?
A. Niacin (Niaspan)
B. Atorvastatin
C. Omega-3 fatty acids
D. Fenofibrate
APEA Pre-Predictor 2026/2027 (Actual Exam) – 850+
Questions with Correct Answers & Rationales | Complete
NP Board Exam Study Guide || Complete A+ Guide
Academic Achiever Stuvia
This Document Contains:
❖ APEA Pre-Predictor
❖ Multiple Choice
❖ Actual Exam
❖Questions and Correct Answers
❖Rationales
❖Latest Update 2026/2027
❖Complete A+ Guide
,1. A 15-year-old high school student presents with a mild sore throat and low-
grade fever that has persisted for about 3 weeks. She reports general malaise,
fatigue, and loss of appetite. The NP suspects mononucleosis. Which of the
following is the LEAST appropriate intervention?
A. Palpate the lymph nodes and spleen
B. Examine the posterior oropharynx for petechiae
C. Obtain a CBC, throat culture, and heterophil antibody test
D. Obtain a urinalysis and serum for LFTs and amylase
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Mononucleosis is caused by the Epstein-Barr virus, commonly seen in ages
15-24. Signs include fatigue, malaise, anorexia, tonsillar exudates, and posterior cervical
lymphadenopathy. Splenomegaly may be present. Diagnosis is typically made using the
Monospot test, with CBC showing neutropenia and lymphocytosis. Urinalysis and serum
amylase are not indicated for routine mono diagnosis and would be the least
appropriate intervention .
2. A 32-year-old male patient complains of urinary frequency and burning on
urination for 3 days. Urinalysis reveals bacteriuria and positive nitrites. He denies
any past history of urinary tract infections. The initial treatment should be:
A. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim) for 7-10 days
B. Ciprofloxacin (Cipro) for 3-5 days
C. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole for 3 days
D. 750 mg ciprofloxacin as a one-time dose
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX) is appropriate for UTIs in most
patients. However, in men, the appropriate treatment duration is 7-10 days. Women
with uncomplicated UTI may be treated for 3 days. If community resistance to TMP-SMX
exceeds 20%, another agent should be substituted .
3. A patient presents with a pruritic rash on both knees with visible silver scales.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Eczema
B. Psoriasis
C. Contact dermatitis
D. Tinea corporis
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Psoriasis presents as well-demarcated, erythematous plaques with silvery
, scales, typically on extensor surfaces such as knees and elbows. Unlike eczema, it is not
primarily moist or weepy, and it lacks the central clearing seen in fungal infections .
4. A 6-year-old presents with fever, pharyngitis, and a sandpaper-like rash sparing
the face. A rapid strep test is positive. What is the diagnosis?
A. Measles
B. Scarlet fever
C. Rubella
D. Roseola
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The sandpaper-like rash with cervical lymphadenopathy and positive strep
test indicates scarlet fever, caused by Group A Streptococcus. The rash spares the face
and is caused by erythrogenic toxin. Treatment with antibiotics is indicated to prevent
complications .
5. What wet-mount finding confirms bacterial vaginosis?
A. Hyphae and spores
B. Squamous epithelial cells with stippling, no lactobacillus
C. Organisms with undulating flagellum
D. Clear cytoplasm with many lactobacillus
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Clue cells (squamous epithelial cells with stippled appearance due to adherent
bacteria) and the absence of lactobacillus are diagnostic for bacterial vaginosis. Hyphae
and spores indicate candidiasis, while flagellated organisms suggest trichomoniasis .
Part 2: Cardiovascular Disorders
6. A 44-year-old female patient has diabetes. Her total cholesterol (TC) is 250
mg/dL, LDL = 190 mg/dL, HDL = 25 mg/dL, and triglycerides = 344 mg/dL. What
agent would have the greatest effect on improving her lipid profile and reducing
morbidity and mortality associated with dyslipidemia?
A. Niacin (Niaspan)
B. Atorvastatin
C. Omega-3 fatty acids
D. Fenofibrate
