TESTBANKS BY TESTBANKSNERD
APEA 3P Exam Complete Study Guide
All Questions |Expert Verified Answers| Graded A+
1|Page
, TESTBANKS BY TESTBANKSNERD
1. A 45-year-old male patient presents with complaints of fatigue, weight
loss, and increased thirst. His blood pressure is 150/90 mmHg, and his
fasting blood glucose level is 180 mg/dL. Which of the following is the
most likely diagnosis?
A) Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus
B) Hyperthyroidism
C) Hypertension
D) Acute Myocardial Infarction
Answer: A) Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus
Rationale:
The patient's symptoms of fatigue, weight loss, and increased thirst, along
with elevated fasting blood glucose levels, are classic signs of Type 2 Diabetes
Mellitus. Hypertension and hyperthyroidism could also be present, but they
don't fully account for the patient's symptoms.
2. Which of the following findings would most likely indicate acute
pericarditis?
2|Page
, TESTBANKS BY TESTBANKSNERD
A) Pleural friction rub
B) Decreased heart sounds
C) Sudden sharp chest pain that worsens with inspiration
D) Jugular venous distention
Answer: C) Sudden sharp chest pain that worsens with inspiration
Rationale:
Acute pericarditis is typically characterized by sharp, pleuritic chest pain that
worsens with inspiration or coughing. The pain may improve when the patient
sits up and leans forward. A pleural friction rub is often heard on auscultation,
but the pain pattern is key.
3. A 32-year-old female presents with a 3-day history of a red, swollen, and
painful right lower leg. The patient also reports feeling feverish. Upon
examination, the skin is warm to the touch, and there is localized erythema.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Deep Vein Thrombosis (DVT)
B) Cellulitis
C) Sprain
3|Page
, TESTBANKS BY TESTBANKSNERD
D) Gout
Answer: B) Cellulitis
Rationale:
Cellulitis is a bacterial skin infection often caused by Streptococcus or
Staphylococcus species, resulting in red, swollen, and painful skin, sometimes
accompanied by fever. DVT could present with swelling and pain but is usually
not associated with fever or erythema.
4. A patient has a history of asthma and presents to the clinic with
increased shortness of breath, wheezing, and a decreased peak flow rate.
The patient’s pulse oximetry reading is 92%. Which of the following is the
most appropriate next step in management?
A) Administer oxygen and monitor the patient.
B) Administer a short-acting beta-agonist (SABA) inhaler.
C) Begin IV corticosteroids.
D) Initiate mechanical ventilation.
Answer: B) Administer a short-acting beta-agonist (SABA) inhaler.
4|Page
APEA 3P Exam Complete Study Guide
All Questions |Expert Verified Answers| Graded A+
1|Page
, TESTBANKS BY TESTBANKSNERD
1. A 45-year-old male patient presents with complaints of fatigue, weight
loss, and increased thirst. His blood pressure is 150/90 mmHg, and his
fasting blood glucose level is 180 mg/dL. Which of the following is the
most likely diagnosis?
A) Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus
B) Hyperthyroidism
C) Hypertension
D) Acute Myocardial Infarction
Answer: A) Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus
Rationale:
The patient's symptoms of fatigue, weight loss, and increased thirst, along
with elevated fasting blood glucose levels, are classic signs of Type 2 Diabetes
Mellitus. Hypertension and hyperthyroidism could also be present, but they
don't fully account for the patient's symptoms.
2. Which of the following findings would most likely indicate acute
pericarditis?
2|Page
, TESTBANKS BY TESTBANKSNERD
A) Pleural friction rub
B) Decreased heart sounds
C) Sudden sharp chest pain that worsens with inspiration
D) Jugular venous distention
Answer: C) Sudden sharp chest pain that worsens with inspiration
Rationale:
Acute pericarditis is typically characterized by sharp, pleuritic chest pain that
worsens with inspiration or coughing. The pain may improve when the patient
sits up and leans forward. A pleural friction rub is often heard on auscultation,
but the pain pattern is key.
3. A 32-year-old female presents with a 3-day history of a red, swollen, and
painful right lower leg. The patient also reports feeling feverish. Upon
examination, the skin is warm to the touch, and there is localized erythema.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Deep Vein Thrombosis (DVT)
B) Cellulitis
C) Sprain
3|Page
, TESTBANKS BY TESTBANKSNERD
D) Gout
Answer: B) Cellulitis
Rationale:
Cellulitis is a bacterial skin infection often caused by Streptococcus or
Staphylococcus species, resulting in red, swollen, and painful skin, sometimes
accompanied by fever. DVT could present with swelling and pain but is usually
not associated with fever or erythema.
4. A patient has a history of asthma and presents to the clinic with
increased shortness of breath, wheezing, and a decreased peak flow rate.
The patient’s pulse oximetry reading is 92%. Which of the following is the
most appropriate next step in management?
A) Administer oxygen and monitor the patient.
B) Administer a short-acting beta-agonist (SABA) inhaler.
C) Begin IV corticosteroids.
D) Initiate mechanical ventilation.
Answer: B) Administer a short-acting beta-agonist (SABA) inhaler.
4|Page
