2026/2027 | Chamberlain University | 100 Multiple Choice Q&A |
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SECTION I: HEALTH HISTORY & INTERVIEWING TECHNIQUES
Q1: A 45-year-old male patient presents with chest pain. During the history-taking
process, the nurse practitioner asks, "Can you describe the pain and tell me what you
were doing when it started?" This is an example of which type of question?
A. Closed-ended question
B. Open-ended question
C. Leading question
D. Confrontational question
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Open-ended questions encourage patients to describe their experiences in
their own words, providing comprehensive information. This question invites narrative
description rather than a simple yes/no response. Closed-ended questions (A) would
limit responses to specific answers. Leading questions (C) suggest expected answers.
Confrontational questions (D) challenge the patient's statements. Open-ended
questions are foundational in advanced assessment to gather subjective data without
bias. Clinical Pearl: Begin every patient encounter with open-ended questions before
narrowing to specific details.
,Q2: During a health history interview, a 67-year-old female becomes tearful when
discussing her recent divorce. Which response demonstrates therapeutic
communication?
A. "Don't cry, everything will be fine."
B. "I see this is difficult for you. Take your time."
C. "Let's move on to something less upsetting."
D. "Why are you crying? This is a medical appointment."
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Acknowledging emotion and offering support validates the patient's feelings
while maintaining professional boundaries. Option A minimizes feelings, C avoids
important psychosocial data, and D is judgmental. Advanced practice requires
emotional intelligence to build rapport. Clinical Pearl: Silence and presence are powerful
therapeutic tools; allow 2-3 seconds of silence after emotional disclosures.
Q3: The CAGE questionnaire is a validated screening tool for which condition?
A. Depression
B. Anxiety disorders
C. Alcohol use disorder
D. Domestic violence
Correct Answer: C
,Rationale: CAGE (Cut down, Annoyed, Guilty, Eye-opener) screens for alcohol use
disorder with high sensitivity and specificity. While depression (A) uses PHQ-9, anxiety
(B) uses GAD-7, and domestic violence (D) uses HITS or STaT, CAGE remains the
standard for alcohol screening. Clinical Pearl: A score ≥2 indicates need for further
evaluation; consider combining with AUDIT-C for comprehensive screening.
Q4: A patient states, "I stopped taking my blood pressure medication because I felt fine."
This statement represents which component of the health history?
A. Chief complaint
B. History of present illness
C. Medication reconciliation
D. Patient perspective on illness
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: This statement reveals the patient's health beliefs and understanding of their
condition—critical data in the social/behavioral history. It explains medication
non-adherence, a major healthcare issue. While related to medication reconciliation (C),
the core issue is the patient's explanatory model of illness. Clinical Pearl: Understanding
patient perspectives using Kleinman's questions improves adherence and shared
decision-making.
Q5: Which finding in a review of systems requires immediate follow-up during a routine
physical examination?
A. Occasional headaches relieved by acetaminophen
, B. New onset dyspnea on exertion over the past week
C. Chronic lower back pain unchanged for 2 years
D. Seasonal allergies controlled with antihistamines
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: New onset dyspnea on exertion may indicate cardiovascular or pulmonary
pathology requiring urgent evaluation (heart failure, pulmonary embolism, coronary
artery disease). While other options warrant documentation, they represent stable,
chronic, or minor conditions. Clinical Pearl: Red flag symptoms in ROS include chest
pain, dyspnea, neurological changes, or bleeding—always investigate these immediately.
Q6: When obtaining a family history, which pattern suggests an autosomal dominant
inheritance?
A. Multiple affected males with no female carriers
B. Vertical transmission with male-to-male transmission
C. Horizontal transmission among siblings only
D. Consanguinity with multiple affected offspring
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Autosomal dominant conditions show vertical transmission (affected
individuals in every generation) with male-to-male transmission possible (unlike
X-linked). Option A describes X-linked recessive, C suggests autosomal recessive or
environmental factors, and D indicates consanguinity risk. Clinical Pearl: Use