OB GYN1500 EXAM QUESTIONS
WITH ANSWERS TESTED AND
VERIFIED ANSWERS RATED A+
[Document subtitle]
[DATE]
NURSECLARABURTON
[Company address]
, Week 1
1. A nurse in a prenatal clinic is caring for a client who is at 7 weeks of gestation. The
client reports urinary frequency and asks if this will continue until delivery. Which of
the following responses should the nurse make?
a. "it's a minor inconvenience, which you should ignore."
i. This is a nontherapeutic response that disregards the client’s concern
and offers unwarranted reassurance.
b. "in most cases it only lasts until the 12th week, but it will continue if you have
poor bladder tone."
i. The presence or absence of bladder tone has no bearing on urinary
frequency during pregnancy.
c. "there is no way to predict how long it will last in each individual client."
i. This is a nontherapeutic response that does not provide appropriate
information to the client.
d. "it occurs during the first trimester and near the end of the pregnancy."
i. Urinary frequency is due to increased bladder sensitivity during the first
trimester and recurs near the end of the pregnancy as the enlarging
uterus places pressure on the bladder.
2. A nurse is caring for an antepartum client whose laboratory findings indicate a
negative rubella titer. Which of the following is the correct interpretation of this data?
a. The client is not experiencing a rubella infection at this time.
i. A negative rubella titer indicates the client is susceptible to the rubella
virus. It does not indicate the presence or absence of a rubella
infection.
b. The client is immune to the rubella virus.
i. A negative rubella titer indicates the client is susceptible to the rubella virus.
c. The client requires a rubella vaccination at this time.
i. Rubella vaccination during pregnancy is contraindicated because of
possible injury to the developing fetus.
d. The client requires a rubella immunization following delivery.
i. A negative rubella titer indicates that the client is susceptible to the
rubella virus and needs vaccination following delivery. Immunization
during pregnancy is contraindicated because of possible injury to the
developing fetus. Following rubella immunization, the client should be
cautioned not to conceive for 1 month.
3. A nurse is instructing a woman who is contemplating pregnancy about nutritional needs.
To reduce the risk of giving birth to a newborn who has a neural tube defect, which of
the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?
a. Limit alcohol consumption.
i. Alcohol consumption has no effect on the incidence of neural tube
defects. It is related to the incidence of other congenital defects and
fetal alcohol syndrome (fas) in newborns of clients who consume
alcohol during pregnancy.
b. Increase intake of iron-rich foods.
i. Iron intake has no effect on the incidence of neural tube defects. A diet
low in iron places a client who is pregnant at risk for preterm labor and
postpartum hemorrhage.
c. Consume foods fortified with folic acid.
i. Increased consumption of folic acid in the 3 months prior to conception,
as well as throughout the pregnancy, reduces the incidence of neural tube
defects in the developing fetus.
d. Avoid foods containing aspartame.
i. Aspartame in the diet has no effect on the incidence of neural tube
defects in a fetus. Clients who have phenylketonuria should be advised
to avoid aspartame since it contains phenylalanine.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who is in her first trimester of pregnancy and asks the
nurse if she can continue to exercise during pregnancy. Which of the following
, Responses by the nurse is appropriate?
a. "exercising during pregnancy is not recommended."
i. Physical activity during pregnancy improves circulation, rest, and
relieves boredom. However, risky activities that require precise balance
and coordination should be avoided.
b. "daily jogging for up to 30 minutes is fine throughout the pregnancy."
i. While weight-bearing exercises might become uncomfortable in the last
trimester, they are generally not contraindicated, providing the client
stays hydrated and avoids becoming overheated for extended periods.
c. "activities that raise the body temperature, such as saunas and hot tubs, are
safe until the third trimester."
i. Prolonged or repeated elevations of maternal and fetal temperature can
result in birth defects, especially during the first trimester of pregnancy.
d. "it is recommended that pregnant clients limit their exercise routine to stretching
activities on a mat several times a week."
i. Daily moderate exercise throughout pregnancy is recommended. After
the fourth month of pregnancy, clients should avoid exercising flat on
their back due to the risk of vena cava syndrome.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who is at 6 weeks of gestation with her first pregnancy and
asks the nurse when she can expect to experience quickening. Which of the following
responses should the nurse make?
a. "this will occur during the last trimester of pregnancy."
i. A primigravida client should detect fetal movement earlier than the last
weeks of pregnancy.
b. "this will happen by the end of the first trimester of pregnancy."
i. This is too early in the pregnancy for a primigravida client to
detect fetal movement.
c. "this will occur between the fourth and fifth months of pregnancy."
i. Quickening is defined as the first time the client is able to feel her fetus
move. In a primigravida client, this usually occurs at 18 weeks of gestation
or later. In a multigravida client, this can occur as early as 14 to 16 weeks.
d. "this will happen once the uterus begins to rise out of the pelvis."
i. The uterus rises out of the pelvis at 12 to 14 weeks of gestation, which is
too early for a primigravida client to notice fetal movement.
6. A nurse is caring for a client who is scheduled for a maternal serum-alpha-fetoprotein
test at 15 weeks of gestation. The nurse provides which of the following explanations
about this test to the client?
a. This test assesses fetal lung maturity.
b. It assesses various markers of fetal well-being.
c. This test identifies an rh incompatibility between the mother
and fetus. D. It is a screening test for spinal defects in the fetus.
i. The maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (msafp) screening test is used to
identify suspected neural tube defects (ntds) and abdominal wall
defects. These include spina bifida, microcephaly, and anencephaly. This
tool is the basis for further testing, such as amniocentesis and
specialized ultrasounds.
7. A nurse is caring for a client who has a positive pregnancy test. The nurse is teaching
the client about common discomforts in the first trimester of pregnancy as well as
warning signs of potential danger. The nurse should instruct the client to call the clinic if
she experiences which of the following manifestations?
a. Leukorrhea
b. Urinary frequency
c. Nausea and
vomiting
d. Facial edema
i. Facial edema is a warning sign of a hypertensive condition or
preeclampsia and should be reported immediately to the provider.
8. A nurse in a prenatal clinic is caring for a client who is pregnant and asks the nurse
for her estimated date of birth (edb). The client's last menstrual period began on
july 27. What is the client's edb? (state the date in mmdd. For example, july 27 is
0727).
a. 0504
i. Using nägele's rule, the nurse subtracts three months from the date of
the last menstrual period, then adds 7 days. July minus 3 months equals
april. There are 30 days in april, so 27 + 7 = may 4. The client's edb is
may 4, which would be written as 0504 in the mmdd format.
9. A nurse is providing preconception counseling for a client who is planning a pregnancy.
, Which of the following supplements should the nurse recommend to help prevent neural
tube defects in the fetus?
a. Calcium
WITH ANSWERS TESTED AND
VERIFIED ANSWERS RATED A+
[Document subtitle]
[DATE]
NURSECLARABURTON
[Company address]
, Week 1
1. A nurse in a prenatal clinic is caring for a client who is at 7 weeks of gestation. The
client reports urinary frequency and asks if this will continue until delivery. Which of
the following responses should the nurse make?
a. "it's a minor inconvenience, which you should ignore."
i. This is a nontherapeutic response that disregards the client’s concern
and offers unwarranted reassurance.
b. "in most cases it only lasts until the 12th week, but it will continue if you have
poor bladder tone."
i. The presence or absence of bladder tone has no bearing on urinary
frequency during pregnancy.
c. "there is no way to predict how long it will last in each individual client."
i. This is a nontherapeutic response that does not provide appropriate
information to the client.
d. "it occurs during the first trimester and near the end of the pregnancy."
i. Urinary frequency is due to increased bladder sensitivity during the first
trimester and recurs near the end of the pregnancy as the enlarging
uterus places pressure on the bladder.
2. A nurse is caring for an antepartum client whose laboratory findings indicate a
negative rubella titer. Which of the following is the correct interpretation of this data?
a. The client is not experiencing a rubella infection at this time.
i. A negative rubella titer indicates the client is susceptible to the rubella
virus. It does not indicate the presence or absence of a rubella
infection.
b. The client is immune to the rubella virus.
i. A negative rubella titer indicates the client is susceptible to the rubella virus.
c. The client requires a rubella vaccination at this time.
i. Rubella vaccination during pregnancy is contraindicated because of
possible injury to the developing fetus.
d. The client requires a rubella immunization following delivery.
i. A negative rubella titer indicates that the client is susceptible to the
rubella virus and needs vaccination following delivery. Immunization
during pregnancy is contraindicated because of possible injury to the
developing fetus. Following rubella immunization, the client should be
cautioned not to conceive for 1 month.
3. A nurse is instructing a woman who is contemplating pregnancy about nutritional needs.
To reduce the risk of giving birth to a newborn who has a neural tube defect, which of
the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?
a. Limit alcohol consumption.
i. Alcohol consumption has no effect on the incidence of neural tube
defects. It is related to the incidence of other congenital defects and
fetal alcohol syndrome (fas) in newborns of clients who consume
alcohol during pregnancy.
b. Increase intake of iron-rich foods.
i. Iron intake has no effect on the incidence of neural tube defects. A diet
low in iron places a client who is pregnant at risk for preterm labor and
postpartum hemorrhage.
c. Consume foods fortified with folic acid.
i. Increased consumption of folic acid in the 3 months prior to conception,
as well as throughout the pregnancy, reduces the incidence of neural tube
defects in the developing fetus.
d. Avoid foods containing aspartame.
i. Aspartame in the diet has no effect on the incidence of neural tube
defects in a fetus. Clients who have phenylketonuria should be advised
to avoid aspartame since it contains phenylalanine.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who is in her first trimester of pregnancy and asks the
nurse if she can continue to exercise during pregnancy. Which of the following
, Responses by the nurse is appropriate?
a. "exercising during pregnancy is not recommended."
i. Physical activity during pregnancy improves circulation, rest, and
relieves boredom. However, risky activities that require precise balance
and coordination should be avoided.
b. "daily jogging for up to 30 minutes is fine throughout the pregnancy."
i. While weight-bearing exercises might become uncomfortable in the last
trimester, they are generally not contraindicated, providing the client
stays hydrated and avoids becoming overheated for extended periods.
c. "activities that raise the body temperature, such as saunas and hot tubs, are
safe until the third trimester."
i. Prolonged or repeated elevations of maternal and fetal temperature can
result in birth defects, especially during the first trimester of pregnancy.
d. "it is recommended that pregnant clients limit their exercise routine to stretching
activities on a mat several times a week."
i. Daily moderate exercise throughout pregnancy is recommended. After
the fourth month of pregnancy, clients should avoid exercising flat on
their back due to the risk of vena cava syndrome.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who is at 6 weeks of gestation with her first pregnancy and
asks the nurse when she can expect to experience quickening. Which of the following
responses should the nurse make?
a. "this will occur during the last trimester of pregnancy."
i. A primigravida client should detect fetal movement earlier than the last
weeks of pregnancy.
b. "this will happen by the end of the first trimester of pregnancy."
i. This is too early in the pregnancy for a primigravida client to
detect fetal movement.
c. "this will occur between the fourth and fifth months of pregnancy."
i. Quickening is defined as the first time the client is able to feel her fetus
move. In a primigravida client, this usually occurs at 18 weeks of gestation
or later. In a multigravida client, this can occur as early as 14 to 16 weeks.
d. "this will happen once the uterus begins to rise out of the pelvis."
i. The uterus rises out of the pelvis at 12 to 14 weeks of gestation, which is
too early for a primigravida client to notice fetal movement.
6. A nurse is caring for a client who is scheduled for a maternal serum-alpha-fetoprotein
test at 15 weeks of gestation. The nurse provides which of the following explanations
about this test to the client?
a. This test assesses fetal lung maturity.
b. It assesses various markers of fetal well-being.
c. This test identifies an rh incompatibility between the mother
and fetus. D. It is a screening test for spinal defects in the fetus.
i. The maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (msafp) screening test is used to
identify suspected neural tube defects (ntds) and abdominal wall
defects. These include spina bifida, microcephaly, and anencephaly. This
tool is the basis for further testing, such as amniocentesis and
specialized ultrasounds.
7. A nurse is caring for a client who has a positive pregnancy test. The nurse is teaching
the client about common discomforts in the first trimester of pregnancy as well as
warning signs of potential danger. The nurse should instruct the client to call the clinic if
she experiences which of the following manifestations?
a. Leukorrhea
b. Urinary frequency
c. Nausea and
vomiting
d. Facial edema
i. Facial edema is a warning sign of a hypertensive condition or
preeclampsia and should be reported immediately to the provider.
8. A nurse in a prenatal clinic is caring for a client who is pregnant and asks the nurse
for her estimated date of birth (edb). The client's last menstrual period began on
july 27. What is the client's edb? (state the date in mmdd. For example, july 27 is
0727).
a. 0504
i. Using nägele's rule, the nurse subtracts three months from the date of
the last menstrual period, then adds 7 days. July minus 3 months equals
april. There are 30 days in april, so 27 + 7 = may 4. The client's edb is
may 4, which would be written as 0504 in the mmdd format.
9. A nurse is providing preconception counseling for a client who is planning a pregnancy.
, Which of the following supplements should the nurse recommend to help prevent neural
tube defects in the fetus?
a. Calcium
