ABC ORTHOTICS WRITTEN PREP EXAM QUESTIONS WITH VERIFIED
SOLUTIONS - UPDATED VERSION - COMPREHENSIVE REVIEW 2026
The paraspinal bars of a TLSO: sagittal control should extend superiorly
to the ANSWER spine of the scapula
-
The TLSO: Anterior control should be fitted with the patient in a-
ANSWER Supine position
What orthosis would be used to manage a patient with a T3
compression fracture? - ANSWER TLSO: anterior control with cervical
extension
In scoliosis management, lateral flexion radiographs are used to: -
ANSWER Determine if the curve is structural
The axial skeleton is attached to the appendicular skeleton at the: -
ANSWER Sternoclavicular and sacroiliac joints
The commonly
pad most used in conjunction with a CTLSO is a: -
ANSWER Thoracic pad
Abdominal muscles ANSWER Help increase intracavitary pressure
-
Reduce loading on vertebral discs Decrease excessive lordosis
In what order should the halo pins be tightened? - ANSWER Diagonal
pins together
The goal(s) of treatment for Marie-Strumpell arthritis (ankylosing
spondylitis) are: - ANSWER Prevention of further deformity and Relief
of pain
The most commonly occurring curve pattern in idiopathic adolescent
scoliosis is a ANSWER Right thoracic, left lumbar
-
The method used to find the baseline for corset measurements is: -
ANSWER (inferior costal margin to iliac crest) divided by two
In a right thoracic curve, the spinous processes rotate - ANSWER
Towards the concavity
,Carpal Tunnel Syndrome results from compression of which nerve? -
ANSWER Median
The opponens bar should be located - ANSWER Proximal to the thumb
MP joint
A swan neck deformity causes the PIP joint to: - ANSWER
Hyperextend and the DIP joint to flex
A cable-driven tenodesis orthosis is activated by: - ANSWER
Biscapular abduction
Extension at the MP joint is produced by: - ANSWER Extensor
digitorum communis
A muscle grade of "fair" means that the person is able to get through
complete range of motion: - ANSWER Against gravity
What is a Colle's fracture? - ANSWER Fracture of distal radius
What are the symptoms of erb's palsy? - ANSWER Adduction and
internal rotation of the humerus
Mobile supports balanced forearm orthosis would be indicated for
arm
which patient? ANSWER Non-ambulatory patient with minimal
-
shoulder power
develop
The soft tissue contracture of the hand which is likely to
following paralysis of the ulnar and median nerves includes: - ANSWER
Hyperextension of the MP joints and Flexion of the IP joints of the 2nd,
3rd, 4th and 5th fingers
The first dorsal interosseous assist: - ANSWER Abducts the second
digit to oppose the thumb
A median nerve injury clinically presents with: ANSWER
at the wrist -
Thenar atrophy, loss of thumb opposition, flexion and abduction
Which orthosis would be recommended for a radial-ulnar nerve injury at
the elbow? ANSWER WHO with MP extension stop and 4th and 5th
-
IP extension assist
,The most effective orthosis to prevent rotation is: - ANSWER Custom
molded TLSO body jacket
The interossei abduct, while the
interossei adduct. - ANSWER Dorsal/palmar
Which of the following nerves innervates all of the anterior muscles of
the arm? - ANSWER Musculocutaneous
In general terms, the radial
of the brachial plexus innervates:
nerve -
ANSWER Supinators and extensors
Simultaneous MP flexion and IP extension are performed primarily by
the ANSWER Interossei and lumbricals
-
A positive trendelenburg sign is an indication of: - ANSWER Paralysis
of hip abductors
During quiet standing, what muscles are acting on the ankle joint in the
sagittal plane? - ANSWER Plantar flexors
A cycle of gait consists of - ANSWER 40% swing phase, 60% stance
phase
All of the following muscles are posterior to the medial malleolus
EXCEPT: - ANSWER Peroneus brevis
Normal cadence is about: - ANSWER 100-120 steps a minute
The range of motion at the ankle is: - ANSWER 20 degrees
dorsiflexion, 50 degrees plantarflexion
The calf band on a conventional AFO is placed 20 mm distal to the neck
of the fibula to: - ANSWER Provide a long lever arm to counteract
forces
The lateral side bar on a conventional AFO should deflect posteriorly if
the amount of external ankle rotation: ANSWER Exceeds 28 mm
-
The muscles in the anterior compartment of the leg are innervated by: -
ANSWER Deep peroneal nerve
, The relationship of the long axis of the foot to the line of progression as
measured from the knee axis is: ANSWER Toe out and toe in
-
The placement of the mechanical hip joint is 25 mm proximal -
ANSWER And 12 mm anterior to the greater trochanter
A heel wedge is placed: - ANSWER Between the shoe and the stirrup
Consists of four parts, only one of which acts across the hip joint Is the
chief extensor of the knee Inserts into the tibial tuberosity - ANSWER
quadriceps femoris muscle
Excessive hip circumduction may result from: - ANSWER Dorsiflexor
weakness and Hip flexor weakness
The femoral Scarpa's triangle is bordered by
or - ANSWER Adductor
longus, sartorius and inguinal ligament
In a fixed equinus deformity, which of the following shoe modifications is
most likely to be used? - ANSWER A heel elevation
The cane can substitute for which of the following muscle weaknesses -
ANSWER hip extensors and hip abductors
The distal transverse arch of the foot is: - ANSWER Proximal to the
metatarsal heads
The iliofemoral ligament limits: - ANSWER Extension of the hip joint
In normal ambulation, quadriceps
the are the most active At mid stance
just after - ANSWER heel strike
Maximum dorsiflexion occurs during which phase of gait? - ANSWER
Heel off
A single cycle of gait is defined as the time - ANSWER From heel off of
one foot to heel off of the same foot
During which phase of gait are the hip extensors most active? -
ANSWER Heel strike to foot flat
At what phase of gait is medial lateral stability of the knee most
important? ANSWER Mid stance
-
SOLUTIONS - UPDATED VERSION - COMPREHENSIVE REVIEW 2026
The paraspinal bars of a TLSO: sagittal control should extend superiorly
to the ANSWER spine of the scapula
-
The TLSO: Anterior control should be fitted with the patient in a-
ANSWER Supine position
What orthosis would be used to manage a patient with a T3
compression fracture? - ANSWER TLSO: anterior control with cervical
extension
In scoliosis management, lateral flexion radiographs are used to: -
ANSWER Determine if the curve is structural
The axial skeleton is attached to the appendicular skeleton at the: -
ANSWER Sternoclavicular and sacroiliac joints
The commonly
pad most used in conjunction with a CTLSO is a: -
ANSWER Thoracic pad
Abdominal muscles ANSWER Help increase intracavitary pressure
-
Reduce loading on vertebral discs Decrease excessive lordosis
In what order should the halo pins be tightened? - ANSWER Diagonal
pins together
The goal(s) of treatment for Marie-Strumpell arthritis (ankylosing
spondylitis) are: - ANSWER Prevention of further deformity and Relief
of pain
The most commonly occurring curve pattern in idiopathic adolescent
scoliosis is a ANSWER Right thoracic, left lumbar
-
The method used to find the baseline for corset measurements is: -
ANSWER (inferior costal margin to iliac crest) divided by two
In a right thoracic curve, the spinous processes rotate - ANSWER
Towards the concavity
,Carpal Tunnel Syndrome results from compression of which nerve? -
ANSWER Median
The opponens bar should be located - ANSWER Proximal to the thumb
MP joint
A swan neck deformity causes the PIP joint to: - ANSWER
Hyperextend and the DIP joint to flex
A cable-driven tenodesis orthosis is activated by: - ANSWER
Biscapular abduction
Extension at the MP joint is produced by: - ANSWER Extensor
digitorum communis
A muscle grade of "fair" means that the person is able to get through
complete range of motion: - ANSWER Against gravity
What is a Colle's fracture? - ANSWER Fracture of distal radius
What are the symptoms of erb's palsy? - ANSWER Adduction and
internal rotation of the humerus
Mobile supports balanced forearm orthosis would be indicated for
arm
which patient? ANSWER Non-ambulatory patient with minimal
-
shoulder power
develop
The soft tissue contracture of the hand which is likely to
following paralysis of the ulnar and median nerves includes: - ANSWER
Hyperextension of the MP joints and Flexion of the IP joints of the 2nd,
3rd, 4th and 5th fingers
The first dorsal interosseous assist: - ANSWER Abducts the second
digit to oppose the thumb
A median nerve injury clinically presents with: ANSWER
at the wrist -
Thenar atrophy, loss of thumb opposition, flexion and abduction
Which orthosis would be recommended for a radial-ulnar nerve injury at
the elbow? ANSWER WHO with MP extension stop and 4th and 5th
-
IP extension assist
,The most effective orthosis to prevent rotation is: - ANSWER Custom
molded TLSO body jacket
The interossei abduct, while the
interossei adduct. - ANSWER Dorsal/palmar
Which of the following nerves innervates all of the anterior muscles of
the arm? - ANSWER Musculocutaneous
In general terms, the radial
of the brachial plexus innervates:
nerve -
ANSWER Supinators and extensors
Simultaneous MP flexion and IP extension are performed primarily by
the ANSWER Interossei and lumbricals
-
A positive trendelenburg sign is an indication of: - ANSWER Paralysis
of hip abductors
During quiet standing, what muscles are acting on the ankle joint in the
sagittal plane? - ANSWER Plantar flexors
A cycle of gait consists of - ANSWER 40% swing phase, 60% stance
phase
All of the following muscles are posterior to the medial malleolus
EXCEPT: - ANSWER Peroneus brevis
Normal cadence is about: - ANSWER 100-120 steps a minute
The range of motion at the ankle is: - ANSWER 20 degrees
dorsiflexion, 50 degrees plantarflexion
The calf band on a conventional AFO is placed 20 mm distal to the neck
of the fibula to: - ANSWER Provide a long lever arm to counteract
forces
The lateral side bar on a conventional AFO should deflect posteriorly if
the amount of external ankle rotation: ANSWER Exceeds 28 mm
-
The muscles in the anterior compartment of the leg are innervated by: -
ANSWER Deep peroneal nerve
, The relationship of the long axis of the foot to the line of progression as
measured from the knee axis is: ANSWER Toe out and toe in
-
The placement of the mechanical hip joint is 25 mm proximal -
ANSWER And 12 mm anterior to the greater trochanter
A heel wedge is placed: - ANSWER Between the shoe and the stirrup
Consists of four parts, only one of which acts across the hip joint Is the
chief extensor of the knee Inserts into the tibial tuberosity - ANSWER
quadriceps femoris muscle
Excessive hip circumduction may result from: - ANSWER Dorsiflexor
weakness and Hip flexor weakness
The femoral Scarpa's triangle is bordered by
or - ANSWER Adductor
longus, sartorius and inguinal ligament
In a fixed equinus deformity, which of the following shoe modifications is
most likely to be used? - ANSWER A heel elevation
The cane can substitute for which of the following muscle weaknesses -
ANSWER hip extensors and hip abductors
The distal transverse arch of the foot is: - ANSWER Proximal to the
metatarsal heads
The iliofemoral ligament limits: - ANSWER Extension of the hip joint
In normal ambulation, quadriceps
the are the most active At mid stance
just after - ANSWER heel strike
Maximum dorsiflexion occurs during which phase of gait? - ANSWER
Heel off
A single cycle of gait is defined as the time - ANSWER From heel off of
one foot to heel off of the same foot
During which phase of gait are the hip extensors most active? -
ANSWER Heel strike to foot flat
At what phase of gait is medial lateral stability of the knee most
important? ANSWER Mid stance
-
