NR 547 CEA EXAM 2026 - CHAMBERLAIN
UNIVERSITY COMPREHENSIVE EXAM
ASSESSMENT (CEA) QUESTIONS AND
VERIFIED ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES
GRADED A+ LATEST
Question 1
A 52-year-old patient with type 2 diabetes presents with numbness and burning
pain in both feet, worse at night. Which medication is most appropriate as first-line
treatment?
A. Ibuprofen
B. Gabapentin
C. Prednisone
D. Acetaminophen
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Gabapentin is a first-line agent for diabetic peripheral neuropathy due
to its effectiveness in neuropathic pain modulation. NSAIDs and acetaminophen
are ineffective for neuropathic pain, and corticosteroids are not indicated.
Question 2
A patient with chronic kidney disease stage 4 should have which medication dose
adjusted or avoided?
A. Acetaminophen
B. Metformin
C. Amlodipine
D. Insulin glargine
Correct Answer: B
,Rationale: Metformin should be avoided or dose-adjusted in advanced renal
disease due to increased risk of lactic acidosis. The other medications are generally
safe with monitoring.
Question 3
A 28-year-old woman presents with dysuria, urinary frequency, and suprapubic
pain. Urinalysis shows positive leukocyte esterase and nitrites. What is the most
appropriate initial treatment?
A. Ciprofloxacin for 14 days
B. Nitrofurantoin for 5 days
C. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole for 21 days
D. Amoxicillin-clavulanate for 14 days
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Nitrofurantoin for 5 days is first-line therapy for uncomplicated
cystitis. Longer durations or broader-spectrum antibiotics are unnecessary.
Question 4
Which finding is most concerning in a patient with suspected pulmonary
embolism?
A. Gradual onset dyspnea
B. Pleuritic chest pain
C. Sudden unexplained tachycardia
D. Mild hypoxia
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Sudden unexplained tachycardia is a hallmark and concerning sign of
pulmonary embolism, indicating acute cardiopulmonary stress.
,Question 5
A patient with heart failure with reduced ejection fraction should be prescribed
which medication to improve mortality?
A. Diltiazem
B. Furosemide
C. Lisinopril
D. Digoxin
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: ACE inhibitors reduce mortality and slow disease progression in
HFrEF. Diuretics improve symptoms but do not reduce mortality.
Question 6
A 6-year-old child presents with a barking cough and inspiratory stridor. What is
the most likely diagnosis?
A. Epiglottitis
B. Bronchiolitis
C. Croup
D. Asthma
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Croup is characterized by a barking cough, stridor, and hoarseness,
often caused by parainfluenza virus.
Question 7
Which vaccine is contraindicated in pregnancy?
A. Influenza (inactivated)
B. Tdap
C. MMR
D. Hepatitis B
, Correct Answer: C
Rationale: MMR is a live attenuated vaccine and contraindicated during
pregnancy due to fetal risk.
Question 8
A patient presents with fatigue, weight gain, cold intolerance, and bradycardia.
Which lab finding is expected?
A. Low TSH, high T4
B. High TSH, low T4
C. High TSH, high T4
D. Low TSH, low T4
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Primary hypothyroidism presents with elevated TSH and low T4 due to
thyroid gland failure.
Question 9
A patient with atrial fibrillation has a CHA₂DS₂-VASc score of 3. What is the
recommended management?
A. Aspirin therapy
B. No anticoagulation
C. Oral anticoagulation
D. Dual antiplatelet therapy
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A CHA₂DS₂-VASc score ≥2 warrants oral anticoagulation to reduce
stroke risk.
UNIVERSITY COMPREHENSIVE EXAM
ASSESSMENT (CEA) QUESTIONS AND
VERIFIED ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES
GRADED A+ LATEST
Question 1
A 52-year-old patient with type 2 diabetes presents with numbness and burning
pain in both feet, worse at night. Which medication is most appropriate as first-line
treatment?
A. Ibuprofen
B. Gabapentin
C. Prednisone
D. Acetaminophen
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Gabapentin is a first-line agent for diabetic peripheral neuropathy due
to its effectiveness in neuropathic pain modulation. NSAIDs and acetaminophen
are ineffective for neuropathic pain, and corticosteroids are not indicated.
Question 2
A patient with chronic kidney disease stage 4 should have which medication dose
adjusted or avoided?
A. Acetaminophen
B. Metformin
C. Amlodipine
D. Insulin glargine
Correct Answer: B
,Rationale: Metformin should be avoided or dose-adjusted in advanced renal
disease due to increased risk of lactic acidosis. The other medications are generally
safe with monitoring.
Question 3
A 28-year-old woman presents with dysuria, urinary frequency, and suprapubic
pain. Urinalysis shows positive leukocyte esterase and nitrites. What is the most
appropriate initial treatment?
A. Ciprofloxacin for 14 days
B. Nitrofurantoin for 5 days
C. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole for 21 days
D. Amoxicillin-clavulanate for 14 days
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Nitrofurantoin for 5 days is first-line therapy for uncomplicated
cystitis. Longer durations or broader-spectrum antibiotics are unnecessary.
Question 4
Which finding is most concerning in a patient with suspected pulmonary
embolism?
A. Gradual onset dyspnea
B. Pleuritic chest pain
C. Sudden unexplained tachycardia
D. Mild hypoxia
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Sudden unexplained tachycardia is a hallmark and concerning sign of
pulmonary embolism, indicating acute cardiopulmonary stress.
,Question 5
A patient with heart failure with reduced ejection fraction should be prescribed
which medication to improve mortality?
A. Diltiazem
B. Furosemide
C. Lisinopril
D. Digoxin
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: ACE inhibitors reduce mortality and slow disease progression in
HFrEF. Diuretics improve symptoms but do not reduce mortality.
Question 6
A 6-year-old child presents with a barking cough and inspiratory stridor. What is
the most likely diagnosis?
A. Epiglottitis
B. Bronchiolitis
C. Croup
D. Asthma
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Croup is characterized by a barking cough, stridor, and hoarseness,
often caused by parainfluenza virus.
Question 7
Which vaccine is contraindicated in pregnancy?
A. Influenza (inactivated)
B. Tdap
C. MMR
D. Hepatitis B
, Correct Answer: C
Rationale: MMR is a live attenuated vaccine and contraindicated during
pregnancy due to fetal risk.
Question 8
A patient presents with fatigue, weight gain, cold intolerance, and bradycardia.
Which lab finding is expected?
A. Low TSH, high T4
B. High TSH, low T4
C. High TSH, high T4
D. Low TSH, low T4
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Primary hypothyroidism presents with elevated TSH and low T4 due to
thyroid gland failure.
Question 9
A patient with atrial fibrillation has a CHA₂DS₂-VASc score of 3. What is the
recommended management?
A. Aspirin therapy
B. No anticoagulation
C. Oral anticoagulation
D. Dual antiplatelet therapy
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A CHA₂DS₂-VASc score ≥2 warrants oral anticoagulation to reduce
stroke risk.
