NCLEX-RN Practice Quiz Test Bank | 75 Practice Questions

Nclex rn practice quiz test bank 5 75 questions




NCLEX-RN Practice Quiz Test Bank #5
(75 Questions)
NCLEXRN-05-001

Question Tag: arthritis

Question Category: Physiological Integrity,

Mr. Rodriguez is admitted with severe pain in the knees. Which form of arthritis is
characterized by urate deposits and joint pain, usually in the feet and legs, and
occurs primarily in men over age 30?


A. Septic arthritis
 B. Traumatic arthritis
 C. Intermittent arthritis
 D. Gouty arthritis
Correct Answer: D. Gouty arthritis

Gouty arthritis, a metabolic disease, is characterized by urate deposits and pain in
the joints, especially those in the feet and legs. Urate deposits don’t occur in
septic or traumatic arthritis.

 Option A: Septic arthritis results from bacterial invasion of a joint and
leads to inflammation of the synovial lining.
 Option B: Traumatic arthritis results from blunt trauma to a joint or
ligament.
 Option C: Intermittent arthritis is a rare, benign condition marked by
regular, recurrent joint effusions, especially in the knees.




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NCLEXRN-05-002

Question Tag: heparin

Question Category: Physiological Integrity, Pharmacological and Parenteral
Therapies

A heparin infusion at 1,500 units/hour is ordered for a 64-year-old client with
stroke in evolution. The infusion contains 25,000 units of heparin in 500 ml of
saline solution. How many milliliters per hour should be given?


A. 15 ml/hour
 B. 30 ml/hour
 C. 45 ml/hour
 D. 50 ml/hour
Correct Answer: B. 30 ml/hour

An infusion prepared with 25,000 units of heparin in 500 ml of saline solution
yields 50 units of heparin per milliliter of solution. The equation is set up as 50
units times X (the unknown quantity) equals 1,500 units/hour, X equals 30
ml/hour.

 Option A: 15 ml/hr is incorrect based on the computation used.
 Option C: 45 ml/hr is more than the correct milliliters to be infused based
on the computation.
 Option D: 50 ml/hr is incorrect because it is way more than the correct
milliliter to be infused.



NCLEXRN-05-003

Question Tag: stroke

Question Category: Physiological Integrity, Physiological Adaptation

A 76-year-old male client had a thromboembolic right stroke; his left arm is
swollen. Which of the following conditions may cause swelling after a stroke?



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
A. Elbow contracture secondary to spasticity.
 B. Loss of muscle contraction decreasing venous return.
 C. Deep vein thrombosis (DVT) due to immobility of the ipsilateral side.
 D. Hypoalbuminemia due to protein escaping from an inflamed
glomerulus.
Correct Answer: B. Loss of muscle contraction decreasing venous return

In clients with hemiplegia or hemiparesis, loss of muscle contraction decreases
venous return and may cause swelling of the affected extremity.

 Option A: Contractures or bony calcifications may occur with a stroke, but
don’t appear with swelling.
 Option C: DVT may develop in clients with a stroke but is more likely to
occur in the lower extremities.
 Option D: A stroke isn’t linked to protein loss. Higher levels of protein
were associated with a lower risk of stroke. According to a study, for every
20 grams of protein people ate per day, there is a 26 percent lower risk of
stroke.



NCLEXRN-05-004

Question Tag: osteoarthritis

Question Category: Physiological Integrity, Physiological Adaptation

Heberden’s nodes are a common sign of osteoarthritis. Which of the following
statements is correct about this deformity?


A. It appears only in men.
 B. It appears on the distal interphalangeal joint.
 C. It appears on the proximal interphalangeal joint.
 D. It appears on the dorsolateral aspect of the interphalangeal joint.
Correct Answer: B. It appears on the distal interphalangeal joint.

Heberden’s nodes appear on the distal interphalangeal joint on both men and
women.




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 Option A: It appears on both men and women. They are hard bony lumps
in the joints of the fingers.
 Option C: It does not appear on the proximal, rather, on the distal
interphalangeal joint.
 Option D: Bouchard’s node appears on the dorsolateral aspect of the
proximal interphalangeal joint.



NCLEXRN-05-005

Question Tag: arthritis

Question Category: Physiological Integrity, Physiological Adaptation

Which of the following statements explains the main difference
between rheumatoid arthritis and osteoarthritis?

 A. Osteoarthritis is gender-specific, rheumatoid arthritis isn’t.
 B. Osteoarthritis is a localized disease rheumatoid arthritis is systemic.
 C. Osteoarthritis is a systemic disease, rheumatoid arthritis is localized.
 D. Osteoarthritis has dislocations and subluxations, rheumatoid arthritis
doesn’t.
Correct Answer: B. Osteoarthritis is a localized disease; rheumatoid arthritis
is systemic

Osteoarthritis is a localized disease, rheumatoid arthritis is systemic.

 Option A: Osteoarthritis isn’t gender-specific, but rheumatoid arthritis is.
 Option C: Osteoarthritis is localized while rheumatoid arthritis is systemic.
 Option D: Clients have dislocations and subluxations in both disorders.



NCLEXRN-05-006

Question Tag: assistive devices

Question Category: Basic Care and Comfort



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