CHAMBERLAIN COLLEGE OF NURSING NR511 MIDTERM TEST
CHAMBERLAIN COLLEGE OF NURSING NR511 MIDTERM TEST QUESTION
BANK 200 Q/A: | 100 % VERIFIED ANSWERS WITH DETAILED
RATIONALES , ALREADY GRADED A+ 2025/2026 LATEST
You suspect that Harry has a peptic ulcer and tell him that it has been found to be
strongly associated with:
1.Anxiety and panic attacks.
2.Long-term use of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs).
3.Infection by Helicobacter pylori.
4.A family history of peptic ulcers.
Infection by H. Pylori
rationale: About 90% of cases of peptic ulcers have been found to be caused by
infection with the bacteria H pylori
You suspect that Nikki has a gastroduodenal ulcer caused by Helicobacter pylori
and plan to treat her empirically. What medications should you order?
1.A proton pump inhibitor (omeprazole), tetracycline or amoxicillin, and
metronidazole (Flagyl).
2.Bismuth subsalicylate (Pepto-Bismol) and omeprazole (Prilosec).
3.Amoxicillin (Amoxil) and omeprazole (Prilosec).
4.Clarithromycin (Biaxin) and metronidazole (Flagyl)
Amoxicillin (Amoxil) and omeprazole (Prilosec)
rationale: Both drugs listed are used in the eradication of H pylori, but do not
complete the regimen.
A 7-year-old male presents with his mother to the urgent care clinic complaining
of abdominal pain. He started to complain of pain prior to going to bed; however,
it has gotten progressively worse and is now preventing him from sleeping. He is
nauseous but hasn't vomited and didn't eat dinner due to the pain. The patient
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, CHAMBERLAIN COLLEGE OF NURSING NR511 MIDTERM TEST
appears pale and is complaining of right-sided abdominal pain. His vitals are as
follows: blood pressure 130/85, pulse 120, temperature 100.5°F, pulse oximetry
98% on room air. On physical exam he is tender in the right lower quadrant. His
complete blood count (CBC) shows a white blood cell count (WBC) of 17.0. What
is the patient's likely diagnosis?
1.Appendicitis.
2.Cholecystitis.
3.Constipation.
4.Gastroenteritis
appendicitis
rationale: This is the clinical scenario typical for appendicitis
What is the recommended treatment to eradicate a Helicobacter pylori infection?
1.Ranitidine, amoxicillin, and clarithromycin for 2 weeks.
2.Amoxicillin, clarithromycin, and omeprazole for 2 weeks.
3.Bismuth, amoxicillin, and clarithromycin for 2 weeks.
4.Bismuth, doxycycline, metronidazole, and ranitidine.
Amoxicillin, clarithromycin, and omeprazole for 2 weeks
rationale: This is the recommended treatment to eradicate H pylori.
A 50-year-old female presents to the urgent care clinic complaining of left lower
quadrant pain. She has associated nausea and vomiting, and her vital signs are as
follows: temperature 102.5°F, pulse 110, blood pressure 150/90, pulse oximetry
99% on room air. What is the best test to evaluate this patient?
1.Sigmoidoscopy.
2.Abdominal series.
3.Computed tomography (CT) scan with oral contrast.
4.Abdominal ultrasound.
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, CHAMBERLAIN COLLEGE OF NURSING NR511 MIDTERM TEST
Computed tomography (CT) scan with oral contrast
rationale: This is the best diagnostic choice. While diverticulitis is likely the
cause of the patient's symptoms, a CT of the abdomen would show if the patient
has any gynecologic etiology (such as ovarian cyst or tumor) of this pain
Which gastrointestinal disease below could theoretically be completely eradicated
with a total colectomy?
1.Crohn's disease.
2.Irritable bowel syndrome.
3.Ulcerative colitis.
4.Celiac disease
Ulcerative Colitis
rationale: Ulcerative colitis is a disease only of the colon. While it is not the first
treatment choice, total colectomy is a treatment option that can completely
resolve this problem
The screening guidelines for colon cancer recommend which of the following for
the general population?
1.Colonoscopy starting at age 50.
2.Colonoscopy starting at age 45.
3.Fecal occult blood test (FOBT) and rectal exam starting at age 50.
4.Fecal occult blood test (FOBT) and rectal exam starting at age 45.
Colonoscopy after age 50
rationale: This is the recommended age to start colonoscopic examination in
someone with a low risk for colon cancer
Which of the following is not a risk factor for cholecystitis?
1.Female gender.
2.Obesity.
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, CHAMBERLAIN COLLEGE OF NURSING NR511 MIDTERM TEST
3.Sickle cell anemia.
4.Younger age
Younger age
rationale: The risk of cholecystitis actually increases with age
A 54-year-old female presents to your primary care office for routine reevaluation
for gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). She has been treated with diet
modifications and 6 weeks of omeprazole without improvement of her symptoms.
What is the next step in management of this patient's GERD?
1.Order an endoscopy.
2.Order a Helicobacter pylori blood test.
3.Try adding ranitidine to the patient's regimen.
4.Try adding bismuth to the patient's regimen.
Order an endoscopy
rationale: This is the next step in treatment in order to evaluate the etiology of
the patient's GERD and consider biopsy if necessary
A 25-year-old male presents with "bleeding in my eye" for 1 day. He awoke this
morning with a dark area of redness in his eye. He has no visual loss or changes.
He denies constitutional symptoms, pruritus, drainage, or recent trauma. The
redness presents on physical exam as a dark red area in the patient's sclera of the
right eye only and takes up less than 50% of the eye. The patient's remaining
sclera is clear and white. He also notes he was drinking alcohol last night and
vomited afterward. What is the best treatment?
1.Topical steroids and close follow-up with an ophthalmologist.
2.Sending the patient to the emergency department for immediate
ophthalmology consult.
3.Reassurance that this lesion will resolve without any treatment in 2 to 4 weeks.
4.Cold compresses and frequent handwashing
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CHAMBERLAIN COLLEGE OF NURSING NR511 MIDTERM TEST QUESTION
BANK 200 Q/A: | 100 % VERIFIED ANSWERS WITH DETAILED
RATIONALES , ALREADY GRADED A+ 2025/2026 LATEST
You suspect that Harry has a peptic ulcer and tell him that it has been found to be
strongly associated with:
1.Anxiety and panic attacks.
2.Long-term use of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs).
3.Infection by Helicobacter pylori.
4.A family history of peptic ulcers.
Infection by H. Pylori
rationale: About 90% of cases of peptic ulcers have been found to be caused by
infection with the bacteria H pylori
You suspect that Nikki has a gastroduodenal ulcer caused by Helicobacter pylori
and plan to treat her empirically. What medications should you order?
1.A proton pump inhibitor (omeprazole), tetracycline or amoxicillin, and
metronidazole (Flagyl).
2.Bismuth subsalicylate (Pepto-Bismol) and omeprazole (Prilosec).
3.Amoxicillin (Amoxil) and omeprazole (Prilosec).
4.Clarithromycin (Biaxin) and metronidazole (Flagyl)
Amoxicillin (Amoxil) and omeprazole (Prilosec)
rationale: Both drugs listed are used in the eradication of H pylori, but do not
complete the regimen.
A 7-year-old male presents with his mother to the urgent care clinic complaining
of abdominal pain. He started to complain of pain prior to going to bed; however,
it has gotten progressively worse and is now preventing him from sleeping. He is
nauseous but hasn't vomited and didn't eat dinner due to the pain. The patient
1|Page
, CHAMBERLAIN COLLEGE OF NURSING NR511 MIDTERM TEST
appears pale and is complaining of right-sided abdominal pain. His vitals are as
follows: blood pressure 130/85, pulse 120, temperature 100.5°F, pulse oximetry
98% on room air. On physical exam he is tender in the right lower quadrant. His
complete blood count (CBC) shows a white blood cell count (WBC) of 17.0. What
is the patient's likely diagnosis?
1.Appendicitis.
2.Cholecystitis.
3.Constipation.
4.Gastroenteritis
appendicitis
rationale: This is the clinical scenario typical for appendicitis
What is the recommended treatment to eradicate a Helicobacter pylori infection?
1.Ranitidine, amoxicillin, and clarithromycin for 2 weeks.
2.Amoxicillin, clarithromycin, and omeprazole for 2 weeks.
3.Bismuth, amoxicillin, and clarithromycin for 2 weeks.
4.Bismuth, doxycycline, metronidazole, and ranitidine.
Amoxicillin, clarithromycin, and omeprazole for 2 weeks
rationale: This is the recommended treatment to eradicate H pylori.
A 50-year-old female presents to the urgent care clinic complaining of left lower
quadrant pain. She has associated nausea and vomiting, and her vital signs are as
follows: temperature 102.5°F, pulse 110, blood pressure 150/90, pulse oximetry
99% on room air. What is the best test to evaluate this patient?
1.Sigmoidoscopy.
2.Abdominal series.
3.Computed tomography (CT) scan with oral contrast.
4.Abdominal ultrasound.
2|Page
, CHAMBERLAIN COLLEGE OF NURSING NR511 MIDTERM TEST
Computed tomography (CT) scan with oral contrast
rationale: This is the best diagnostic choice. While diverticulitis is likely the
cause of the patient's symptoms, a CT of the abdomen would show if the patient
has any gynecologic etiology (such as ovarian cyst or tumor) of this pain
Which gastrointestinal disease below could theoretically be completely eradicated
with a total colectomy?
1.Crohn's disease.
2.Irritable bowel syndrome.
3.Ulcerative colitis.
4.Celiac disease
Ulcerative Colitis
rationale: Ulcerative colitis is a disease only of the colon. While it is not the first
treatment choice, total colectomy is a treatment option that can completely
resolve this problem
The screening guidelines for colon cancer recommend which of the following for
the general population?
1.Colonoscopy starting at age 50.
2.Colonoscopy starting at age 45.
3.Fecal occult blood test (FOBT) and rectal exam starting at age 50.
4.Fecal occult blood test (FOBT) and rectal exam starting at age 45.
Colonoscopy after age 50
rationale: This is the recommended age to start colonoscopic examination in
someone with a low risk for colon cancer
Which of the following is not a risk factor for cholecystitis?
1.Female gender.
2.Obesity.
3|Page
, CHAMBERLAIN COLLEGE OF NURSING NR511 MIDTERM TEST
3.Sickle cell anemia.
4.Younger age
Younger age
rationale: The risk of cholecystitis actually increases with age
A 54-year-old female presents to your primary care office for routine reevaluation
for gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). She has been treated with diet
modifications and 6 weeks of omeprazole without improvement of her symptoms.
What is the next step in management of this patient's GERD?
1.Order an endoscopy.
2.Order a Helicobacter pylori blood test.
3.Try adding ranitidine to the patient's regimen.
4.Try adding bismuth to the patient's regimen.
Order an endoscopy
rationale: This is the next step in treatment in order to evaluate the etiology of
the patient's GERD and consider biopsy if necessary
A 25-year-old male presents with "bleeding in my eye" for 1 day. He awoke this
morning with a dark area of redness in his eye. He has no visual loss or changes.
He denies constitutional symptoms, pruritus, drainage, or recent trauma. The
redness presents on physical exam as a dark red area in the patient's sclera of the
right eye only and takes up less than 50% of the eye. The patient's remaining
sclera is clear and white. He also notes he was drinking alcohol last night and
vomited afterward. What is the best treatment?
1.Topical steroids and close follow-up with an ophthalmologist.
2.Sending the patient to the emergency department for immediate
ophthalmology consult.
3.Reassurance that this lesion will resolve without any treatment in 2 to 4 weeks.
4.Cold compresses and frequent handwashing
4|Page
