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1. A man self-administers aqueous epinephrine after experiencing a bee sting and
developing angioedema and wheezing. What should the man do next?
A. Resume normal activity if symptom free after 30 to 60 minutes.
B. Repeat the epinephrine dose if needed and notify a physician of the episode.
C. Obtain transport to an emergency department immediately.
D. Take oral diphenhydramine and report any symptoms to a provider. - ANSWER
C. Obtain transport to an emergency department immediately: Obtain
transport to an emergency department immediately. The man has a history of
anaphylaxis and experienced symptoms after contact with a trigger. The aqueous
epinephrine should be used immediately but does not prevent the need for follow
up in an emergency department for close observation, since continued reaction to
the allergen can occur for 6 to 8 hours. The epinephrine dose may be given if
needed before emergency personnel arrive, but a second dose is not enough to
prevent ongoing reaction to the allergen.
2. A patient is seen in the emergency department after experiencing a spider bite.
The spider is in a jar and is less than one inch in size, yellow-brown, and has a
violin-shaped marking on its back. Depending on the patient's symptoms, which
treatments and diagnostic evaluations may be ordered? (Select all that apply.)
,A. Antivenom therapy
B. Airway management
C. Coagulation studies
D. An acute abdominal series
E. Tetanus prophylaxis
F. CBC, BUN, electrolytes, and creatinine - ANSWER C-E-F: The spider is a
brown recluse. If the patient exhibits systemic symptoms, laboratory workup,
including CBC, BUN, creatinine, electrolytes, and coagulation studies should be
performed. Tetanus prophylaxis is given. Airway management, an acute abdominal
series, and antivenom therapy are used for black widow spider bites.
3. A patient reports heart palpitation but no other symptoms and has no prior
history of cardiovascular disease. The clinic provider performs an
electrocardiogram and notes atrial fibrillation and a heart rate of 120 beats per
minute. Which is the initial course of action in treating this patient?
A. Admit to the hospital for urgent cardioversion.
B. Refer the patient to a cardiologist.
C. Initiate steps to begin anticoagulant therapy.
D. Administer atenolol intravenously. - ANSWER B. Refer the patient to a
cardiologist: Refer the patient to a cardiologist. This patient has no history of
serious heart disease and does not have symptoms of chest pressure, acute MI, or
congestive heart failure and may be referred to a cardiologist for evaluation and
treatment but anticoagulant therapy to minimize the risk of clot formation should
be started initially. The 2014 AHA Guidelines for Atrial Fibrillation recommend
shared decision-making in regard to anticoagulation based on relative risk of the
patient for thromboembolic event. Atenolol is given IV for patients who are
unstable; the advanced life support treatment guidelines do not recommend
treatment of tachycardia if the patient is stable. Urgent cardioversion is rarely
,needed if the heart rate is less than 150 beats per minute unless there are
underlying heart conditions.
4. A patient has a gradually enlarging nodule on one upper eyelid and reports that
the lesion is painful. On examination, the lesion appears warm and erythematous.
The provider knows that this is likely to be which type of lesion?
A. Meibomian
B. Chalazion
C. Hordeolum
D. Blepharitis - ANSWER C. Hordeolum: Hordeolum Although hordeolum and
chalazion lesions both present as gradually enlarging nodules, a hordeolum is
usually painful, while a chalazion generally is not. Blepharitis refers to generalized
inflammation of the eyelids. Meibomian is a type of gland near the eye.
5. Which are risk factors for developing hearing loss caused by presbycusis?
(Select all that apply.)
A. Liver disease
B. High blood pressure
C. Smoking
D. Diabetes
E. GERD - ANSWER B-C-D: Presbycusis is a gradual degeneration within the
cochlea that accompanies aging. Diabetes, high blood pressure, and smoking may
hasten these changes. GERD and liver disease are not associated with an
increased rate of changes. C. Smoking Presbycusis is a gradual degeneration within
the cochlea that accompanies aging. Diabetes, high blood pressure, and smoking
may hasten these changes. GERD and liver disease are not associated with an
increased rate of changes. D. Diabetes Presbycusis is a gradual degeneration
, within the cochlea that accompanies aging. Diabetes, high blood pressure, and
smoking may hasten these changes. GERD and liver disease are not associated
with an increased rate of changes.
6. A patient presenting with nasal congestion, fever, purulent nasal discharge,
headache, and facial pain begins treatment with amoxicillin-clavulanate. At a
follow-up visit 10 days after initiation of treatment, the patient continues to have
purulent discharge, congestion, and facial pain without fever. What is the next
course of action for this patient?
A. A referral to an otolaryngologist
B. An antibiotic based on likely resistant organism
C. A trial of azithromycin
D. A CT scan of the paranasal sinuses - ANSWER B. An antibiotic based on
likely resistant organism: An antibiotic based on likely resistant organism
Treatment failure is seen in patients who do not have symptom improvement and
the provider has re-confirmed the diagnosis of ABRS and assessed for
complications. In these patients, the choice of antibiotic treatment is based on
likely resistant organisms. The lack of fever shows improvement, so this antibiotic
may be used. CT scan is usually not performed in adults unless other
complications are present or suspected. Referral to an otolaryngologist is
necessary if no improvement after the second course of antibiotics. Azithromycin
is not used in adults unless pregnant, due to resistance patterns
7. A 35-year old patient develops acute viral bronchitis. Which is the focus for the
management of symptoms in this patient?
A. Supportive care
B. Antibiotic therapy
C. antitussive therapy