HESI FINAL EXAM – QUESTION AND ANSWERS (Graded A+)

HESI FINAL EXAM – QUESTION AND ANSWERS 1. Which of the following signs would indicate to the FNP that a patient might have an airway occlusion and needs assistance? A. Holding throat with both hands B. Coughing C. Crying D. Whispery, soft voice Expected objective findings in acute otitis media include: A. Submental lymphadenopathy B. Prominent bony landmarks on tympanic membrane C. Itchiness and cracking in the affected ear D. Tympanic membrane immobility Young adults may develop which kind of rash when they are infected with erythema infectiosum? A. Skin around the neck is thickened and dark brown-black B. Erythematous rash in a butterfly distribution on the face C. 2 mm to 5 mm red macules on the trunk and proximal extremities D. Reddened exanthema on hands and feet with distinct margins at wrist and ankle joints Which factor in a patient’s history places him at high risk for skin cancer? A. Job-related exposure to coal tar B. Repairman for x-ray equipment C. Work on a crew that paves highways D. Janitorial service Which of the following physical findings would be expected in a patient with peritoneal irritation? A. Abdominal guarding B. Liver 2 cm below the costal margin C. Increased bowel sounds At what age would the FNP expect to see a child use his or her pincher grasp? A. 11 months B. 6 months C. 9 months D. 3 months An adolescent presents for a sports physical examination. He has a family history of premature cardiac death. He is nonsymptomatic and appears in good health. The FNP should use which technique during the examination to help determine the presence of abnormal heart sounds? A. Have the patient lie on his left side. B. Have the patient perform the Valsalva maneuver. C. Have the patient lean forward. D. Have the patient hold his breath. An FNP reviews both the patient log of a patient with type 2 diabetes and current lab results. Which findings indicate that the target value of the particular test is being met? A. Fasting glucose 125 mg/dL B. HS glucose levels between 100 and 140 mg/dL C. Glycosylated glucose 8% on a random sample D. Glucose levels between 140 and 180 mg/dL 2 hours after heavy meal Which of the following actions best demonstrates that a 31-year-old woman has achieved the appropriate developmental task for her age group? A. Changing careers three times since graduating high school B. Living at home with her parents and working part time C. Living alone and spending lots of time shopping online D. Married with two sons and an active social life Which of the following comments by a patient with Osgood-Schlatter disease is consistent with the diagnosis? A. “My knee hurts all the time, even when I am not moving.” B. “My knee hurts when I run or jump.” C. “My knee only hurts when I twist it.” D. “My knee only hurts when I try to straighten it.” In a patient with Bell’s palsy, which of the following physical exam findings is consistent with the diagnosis? A. Decreased RAMs B. Inability to puff out cheek C. Decreased ability to smell D. Positive straight leg raise Which factor in the patient’s history should cause the FNP to suspect deep vein thrombosis? A. Low fluid intake B. Regular exercise C. Occupation cashier D. Oral contraceptive pill use Which of the following is not a trait found in a person suffering from PTSD? A. Hypersomnia B. Hyperarousal C. Reexperiencing D. Avoidance Besides abdominal or flank pain, what would the best indicator be in a patient with a kidney stone? A. Hematuria B. Urinary frequency/urgency C. pH of urine D. Fever Which of the following objective findings is pathognomonic for infectious mononucleosis? A. Throat erythematous, no exudate B. Facial edema C. Maculopapular rash D. Lymphadenopathy What is the primary difference between tender points and trigger points as objective findings in a physical examination? A. Eliciting trigger points requires use of the reflex hammer; evaluating tender points does not. B. The amount of pressure required to elicit them is different. C. Palpation of trigger points causes radiation of pain; palpation of tender points does not. D. Tender points cause radiating pain, whereas trigger points do not. Visual acuity testing of a young man hoping to enter the military indicates 20/40 vision. The FNP interprets these findings to the man correctly as: A. Vision normal for a young adult male B. Ability to see from 20 feet what the normal eye sees at 40 feet C. Ability to see from 40 feet what the normal eye sees at 20 feet D. Normal vision in the right eye but inability to see beyond 40 feet in the left In assessing a patient suspected of having dementia, the FNP should assess whether the patient has difficulty in which of the following? A. Reading the newspaper B. Getting dressed C. Walking down stairs D. Balancing the checkbook An FNP student sees a patient and reports finding annular lesions of 3 days’ duration. When you enter the room with the student, you expect to see skin lesions arranged in: A. A snake-like pattern B. Circular or ring shape C. Groups of vesicles D. A pattern merging together The FNP suspects that a 6-year-old child has been abused. Which finding would increase the index of suspicion for that diagnosis? A. 2 cm scar in right lower quadrant of abdomen B. Mother’s threat to punish her for punching her young brother in the exam room C. Patient is quieter than usual during this clinic visit with her mother present D. Multiple bruises on arms and face ranging from purple to yellow