CARGP Exam
**Question 1.** Which of the following best describes the primary responsibility of a Board’s
Risk Committee?
A) Approve the annual budget for all business units
B) Oversee the development and monitoring of the enterprise risk management framework
C) Conduct performance appraisals for senior executives
D) Set the organization’s pricing strategy for products
Answer: B
Explanation: The Risk Committee’s core function is to ensure that the ERM framework is
appropriately designed, implemented, and monitored, aligning risk oversight with the board’s
strategic objectives.
**Question 2.** In the context of corporate governance, the “tone at the top” most directly
influences:
A) The organization’s dividend policy
B) The risk culture and ethical behavior throughout the company
C) The selection of external auditors
D) The pricing of the firm’s debt securities
Answer: B
Explanation: “Tone at the top” refers to leadership’s commitment to ethical standards and risk
awareness, which shapes the organization’s overall risk culture.
**Question 3.** A Risk Appetite Statement (RAS) should:
A) List every risk the organization might encounter in detail
B) Define the amount and type of risk the organization is willing to accept in pursuit of its
objectives
, AIIM Certified Advanced Risk Governance
CARGP Exam
C) Replace the need for quantitative risk limits in business units
D) Be static and unchanged for the life of the organization
Answer: B
Explanation: The RAS articulates the level and nature of risk the organization is prepared to
assume, guiding decision‑making and risk‑taking activities.
**Question 4.** Which governance principle is most closely associated with “Stakeholder
Accountability”?
A) Maximizing shareholder value above all else
B) Ensuring transparent reporting and responsiveness to all relevant stakeholders
C) Limiting board involvement in operational matters
D) Delegating all risk decisions to the Chief Risk Officer
Answer: B
Explanation: Stakeholder accountability emphasizes openness and responsiveness to
shareholders, regulators, customers, employees, and the broader community.
**Question 5.** Under ISO 31000, the risk management process includes all EXCEPT:
A) Risk identification
B) Risk financing
C) Risk assessment
D) Risk monitoring and review
Answer: B
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CARGP Exam
Explanation: ISO 31000 outlines risk identification, assessment, treatment, monitoring, and
review; financing is not a core component of the standard.
**Question 6.** Which of the following is a key difference between an Audit Committee and a
Risk Committee?
A) The Audit Committee focuses on financial reporting and internal controls, while the Risk
Committee concentrates on broader enterprise risks.
B) The Risk Committee approves the external auditor’s fees.
C) The Audit Committee develops the organization’s risk appetite.
D) The Risk Committee is responsible for setting executive compensation.
Answer: A
Explanation: Audit Committees oversee financial statements and internal controls, whereas Risk
Committees address strategic, operational, and other non‑financial risks.
**Question 7.** In scenario planning, a “Black Swan” event is characterized by all the following
EXCEPT:
A) Low probability but high impact
B) Predictable using historical data
C) Retrospective rationalization after occurrence
D) Significant disruption to strategic objectives
Answer: B
Explanation: Black Swan events are inherently unpredictable and cannot be reliably forecasted
through historical trends.
, AIIM Certified Advanced Risk Governance
CARGP Exam
**Question 8.** Which of the following best illustrates “Risk Tolerance” at the business‑unit
level?
A) The board’s overall risk appetite statement
B) A specific limit on credit exposure for the loan portfolio of a regional bank
C) The organization’s code of conduct
D) The external auditor’s assessment of internal controls
Answer: B
Explanation: Risk tolerance translates the board‑level appetite into concrete limits for individual
units, such as credit exposure caps.
**Question 9.** The “Duty of Care” for directors primarily requires them to:
A) Maximize short‑term profits for shareholders
B) Act with the care that an ordinarily prudent person would exercise in a similar position
C) Avoid any personal liability under any circumstance
D) Follow the directives of senior management without question
Answer: B
Explanation: Duty of Care obligates directors to act prudently, making informed decisions and
exercising reasonable diligence.
**Question 10.** Which regulatory framework specifically addresses risk management for
insurance companies in the European Union?
A) Basel III
B) Solvency II
C) Dodd‑Frank Act