Questions and Answers All Correct
Rated A+
Pleurodesis - Answer- A procedure aimed at preventing the formation of a pleural
effusion by causing the pleural spaces to seal together.
Radiation therapy consequences - Answer- Chronic esophagitis with gastroesophageal
reflux is a potential consequence of radiation therapy for breast cancer.
Pathologic fracture - Answer- Fractures that occur without evidence of trauma, often
due to loss of bone density from radiation damage.
Sexual activity after myocardial infarction - Answer- Sexual intercourse after an MI
requires no more energy expenditure or cardiac stress than walking briskly up two
flights of stairs.
Percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy (PEG) tube - Answer- A type of feeding tube
that differs from a gastrostomy tube primarily in the method of insertion.
PEG tube - Answer- A tube inserted endoscopically through the esophagus into the
stomach, held in place by a bumper and a water-filled balloon.
GT - Answer- A tube inserted through an incision in the abdomen and sutured to the
gastric wall.
Proctosigmoidoscopy preparation - Answer- Includes obtaining consent, a clear-liquid
diet for 24 to 48 hours prior, administration of an enema, and fasting on the morning of
the procedure.
Dysuria in diabetes - Answer- Elevated fingerstick glucose levels (e.g., 300 mg/dl) need
to be reported to adjust the care plan.
Right renal calculi nursing diagnosis priority - Answer- Acute pain related to movement
of the stone.
Chemotherapy initiation - Answer- Starting chemotherapy early increases the chance of
eradicating cancer cells, as 50% of tumor cells are killed with each dose.
Asterixis - Answer- A clinical sign of liver disease characterized by a flapping tremor of
the hands.
,Clear-liquid diet - Answer- A diet consisting of clear fluids, often required 24 to 48 hours
before certain medical procedures.
Enema - Answer- A procedure to introduce liquid into the rectum to stimulate a bowel
movement or cleanse the bowel before a procedure.
Fasting protocol - Answer- Refraining from all food and drink for a specified period,
often required before medical procedures.
Suprapubic pain - Answer- Pain located in the lower abdomen, often associated with
urinary issues.
Bounding pulse - Answer- A pulse that feels strong and full, often measured at 100
beats/minute in this context.
Small vesicular perineal lesions - Answer- Fluid-filled blisters in the perineal area, which
may indicate an infection or other medical condition.
Acute pain - Answer- Severe discomfort that arises suddenly, often related to conditions
like renal calculi.
Impaired urinary elimination - Answer- Difficulty in passing urine, often due to
obstruction.
Risk for infection - Answer- Increased likelihood of developing an infection, often due to
conditions like urinary stasis.
Deficient knowledge - Answer- A lack of understanding or information regarding a
specific health condition or its management.
Collateral circulation - Answer- Alternative pathways of blood flow that develop as a
response to blockage or narrowing of blood vessels.
Cell cycle rate - Answer- The speed at which a cell progresses through the phases of
growth and division, impacting its sensitivity to chemotherapy.
Tumor cell count reduction - Answer- The process by which chemotherapy reduces the
number of cancer cells, with each dose killing approximately 50%.
Asterixis - Answer- A hand-flapping tremor that is often seen frequently in hepatic
encephalopathy, induced by extending the arm and dorsiflexing the wrist.
Postoperative Observation - Answer- The observation of a pulse change from 85 to 160
beats/minute lasting more than 10 minutes should alert the nurse to call the Rapid
Response Team (RRT).
, Rapid Response Team (RRT) - Answer- A team called to intervene for a client with an
acute life-threatening change.
Valsalva Maneuver - Answer- Straining with bowel movements while holding one's
breath, which increases intracerebral pressure (ICP) and may induce bleeding or
rupture of cerebral blood vessels.
HIV Post-Test Counseling - Answer- Encouraging retesting supports hope and gives the
client time to cope with the diagnosis.
Safety Checklist for Surgery - Answer- Items such as nail polish, contact lenses, and
partial dentures should be removed to provide accurate pulse oximetry readings and
prevent damage during surgery.
Nail Polish Removal - Answer- Removal provides a more accurate pulse oximetry
reading and evaluation of capillary refill.
Monitoring for Battle's Sign - Answer- A nursing action that should be included in the
plan of care for a client admitted with a hemorrhagic stroke.
Active Range of Motion - Answer- Performing active range of motion three times daily is
a nursing action for post-stroke care.
Temperature and WBC Count - Answer- A temperature of 103.1 F and a white blood
cell (WBC) count of 16,000 mm3 are significant observations postoperatively.
Surgical Wound Dressing - Answer- Fresh bleeding noted on abdominal surgical wound
dressing is a concerning observation for a postoperative client.
Diaphoresis and Weakness - Answer- Weakness, diaphoresis, and complaints of feeling
faint with BP 100/56 mm Hg are signs that may indicate a need for urgent care.
Dorsiflexing the Wrist - Answer- A movement that induces asterixis when attempting to
hold the position.
Client's Arm Position for Asterixis Test - Answer- The client should extend the arm,
dorsiflex the wrist, and extend the fingers.
Orthopedic Surgery Preparation - Answer- Completing a safety checklist before
transport to the operating room is essential.
Hearing Aid Removal - Answer- Hearing aids should be removed to prevent damage,
loss, or misplacement during surgery.
Wedding Band Removal - Answer- Wedding bands should be removed to prevent injury
during surgery.