NUR 253 Exam 1 (2026/2027) COMPLETE QUESTIONS WITH VERIFIED CORRECT ANSWERS || 100% GUARANTEED PASS <NEWEST VERSION>A+!!!

NUR 253 Exam 1 (2026/2027) COMPLETE QUESTIONS WITH VERIFIED CORRECT ANSWERS || 100% GUARANTEED PASS &lt;NEWEST VERSION&gt;A+!!! 1. Florence Nightingale - ANSWER Woman who developed first nursing school 2. What is evidence based practice? - ANSWER The use of the best clinical evidence in making patient care decisions 3. Knowledge - ANSWER Information we know from research 4. What is wisdom? - ANSWER Having a deep understanding, keen discernment, and sound judgement 5. Scientific inquiry - ANSWER Identifying ways of analytical thinking common to problem solving and critical thinking in nursing 6. Informal research - ANSWER Gathering information 7. Formal research - ANSWER Systematic inquiry using disciplined methods to solve problems or answer questions 8. Nursing research - ANSWER Systematic inquiry to develop knowledge about issues of importance to the nursing profession 9. Clinical nursing research - ANSWER Research designed to guide nursing practice 10. First journal on research (Nursing research) created in _____? - ANSWER 1950s 11. Clinical research became increasingly important in____? - ANSWER 1980s 12. What year was the National Center for Nursing Research established? - ANSWER 1986 13. What are the roles of Nurses in research? - ANSWER Continuum of participation, from producers of research to skilled consumers of research findings who use research evidence in their practice. 14. Deductive Reasoning - ANSWER Research that goes from general to specific. 15. Example of deductive reasoning - ANSWER All men are mortal. Joe is a man. Therefore Joe is mortal 16. Inductive Reasoning - ANSWER Research that goes from specific to general. 17. Example of inductive reasoning - ANSWER This marble from the bag is black. A second marble from the bag is black. Therefore all the marbles in the bag black. 18. Quantitative Research - ANSWER Uses numbers, orderly procedure, pre-specified plan, seeks generalizations. 19. Qualitative Research - ANSWER Uses descriptions, dynamic designs, holistic, humans as instruments, seeks patterns. 20. Research Utilization - ANSWER The use of study findings in a practical application unrelated to the original research 21. Archie Cochrane - ANSWER Proposed an Evidence hierarchy for weighing evidence 22. What is the strongest type of EBP evidence? - ANSWER Systematic review 23. Example of research-related barrier - ANSWER Scarcity of strong research evidence 24. Example of nurse-related barrier - ANSWER Inadequate skills in locating and appraising evidence 25. Example of organizational barrier - ANSWER Lack of financial support and staff release time for EBP Meta-analyses - ANSWER Integrate findings across quantitative studies statistically Meta-syntheses - ANSWER Integrate and amplify findings across qualitative studies Major steps in EBP - ANSWER Ask questions that reflect uncertainties in clinical practice. Search for and assemble evidence. Appraise and synthesize evidence. Integrate evidence with other sources. Assess effectiveness of decision or advice. Components for quantitative evidence - ANSWER Population Intervention (exposure issue) Comparison Outcome Time Knowledge-focused triggers - ANSWER Begins with an innovation or research finding Problem-focused triggers - ANSWER Begins with a perplexing or troubling clinical situation What is the least effective way to search a PICOT question in a database? A. Search using the boolean connector B. Search using database controlled vocabulary C. Define parameters in the search D. Type in the whole PICOT question in the database - ANSWER D. Type in the whole PICOT question in the database Using the Boolean operator "AND" to connect two words has what effect on the results of a keyword search of a literature database? A. It expands the results to include all articles containing either word. B. It narrows the results to include only articles that contain both words. C. It limits the results to include only articles where the two words appear side by side in phrases. D. It defines the search results by one or the other word. - ANSWER B. It narrows the results to include only articles that contain both words. Learning to perform a quality literature review is essential for which of the following reasons? (Select all that apply) A. Develops skills necessary for lifelong learning B. Identifies gaps in current research C. Lays the foundation for writing quality undergraduate academic papers D. Provides the basis for making best practice decisions - ANSWER A. Develops skills necessary for lifelong learning B. Identifies gaps in current research C. Lays the foundation for writing quality undergraduate academic papers D. Provides the basis for making best practice decisions Which of the following is an example of a primary source? A. A biography of Florence Nightingale B. An original research published study C. A nursing textbook on EBP D. A systematic review of a study - ANSWER B. An original research published study What is the researcher's ability to manipulate or regulate extraneous variables known as? A. Control B. Confounding C. Bias D. Probability - ANSWER A. Control When a research assigns subjects to groups by tossing a coin, the researcher is using which technique? A. Random selection B. Random assignment C. Bias D. Within-groups design - ANSWER B. Random assignment A researcher is studying absorption rates of natural and synthetic vitamins. The researcher has three groups of randomly assigned subjects: one group that will receive the natural vitamin, one group that will receive the synthetic vitamin, and a control group that will receive a placebo. Which type of quantitative design is the researcher using? A. Experimental design B. Ex post facto design C. Nonexperimental design D. Meta-analysis - ANSWER A. Experimental design Which factor would most likely distort the relationship between the independent and dependent variables, producing biased results? A. Use of random assignment B. Manipulation of the independent variable C. Use of between-groups design D. Presence of an extraneous variable - ANSWER D. Presence of an extraneous variable Participants in trials of an experimental intervention are asked to track their daily food and liquid intake during the length of the trial period. Which statement would best explain why the participants report higher-than-average water intake and lower-than-average intake of juices and sodas when compared with the general population? A. Type II error B. Hawthorne effect C. Instrumentation error D. Double-blind experimental design - ANSWER B. Hawthorne effect A researcher wants to see if increased screen time is associated with vision changes over time in self-reported "heavy" gamers. Which experimental design will yield the most useful data for the researcher? A. Cross-sectional study B. Retrospective design C. Longitudinal follow-up study D. Trend study - ANSWER C. Longitudinal follow-up study Which type of study focuses on the transmission and development of an illness based upon patient medical histories? A. Cross-sectional B. Cohort comparison C. Retrospective D. Longitudinal - ANSWER C. Retrospective Randomization is one way researchers can control for extraneous variables. A. True B. False - ANSWER A. True Which type of design would be used by researchers investigating the relationship between coping strategies used by caregivers of older adults with cognitive changes and the occurrence of abuse of older adults? A. Correlational design B. Crossover design C. Multiple experimental groups design D. Factorial design - ANSWER A. Correlational design During a study examining nurses' job satisfaction, the union decides to hold a strike. This is which type of threat to internal validity? A. Selection bias B. Mortality C. History D. Testing - ANSWER C. History For which of the following reasons would descriptive designs be referred to as exploratory studies? A. They are used to explore options when there are too many extraneous variables for an experimental design. B. They are used to explore and gather knowledge when little is known about a phenomenon. C. They provide a way to safely explore independent variables that would otherwise pose safety risks. D. They are used to explore a topic of research but do not yield enough evidence to influence nursing practice. - ANSWER B. They are used to explore and gather knowledge when little is known about a phenomenon. In which way does the nonequivalent control group pretest-posttest design differ from the classical experimental design? A. The design lacks the use of a comparison group. B. The independent variable is unable to be manipulated. C. Groups are not measured before and after an intervention D. Researchers are unable to randomly assign subjects to groups. - ANSWER D. Researchers are unable to randomly assign subjects to groups. All oncology nurses participating in a continuing education seminar A. Quota sampling B. Convenience sampling C. Systematic random sampling D. Multistage cluster sampling - ANSWER B. Conveience sampling Every 20th patient admitted to the ED between January and June 2019. The list of names was recorded in random order. A. Quota sampling B. Convenience sampling C. Systematic random sampling D. Multistage cluster sampling - ANSWER C. Systematic random sampling The first 20 males and the first 20 female patients admitted to the hospital with hypothermia A. Simple random sampling B. Convenience sampling C. Quota sampling D. Consecutive sampling - ANSWER C. Quota sampling A sample of 250 members randomly selected from a roster of the Eastern Nursing Research Society (ENRS) members A. Purposive sampling B. Simple random sampling C. Convenience sampling D. Quota sampling - ANSWER B. Simple random sampling Twenty-five experts in critical care nursing for a qualitative study A. Purposive sampling B. Convenience sampling C. Systematic sampling D. Consecutive sampling - ANSWER A. Purposive sampling Representativeness is the degree to which the elements of the sample are like the elements in the population. A. True B. False - ANSWER A. True Which of the following lists identifies the types of measurement in order from weakest to strongest? A. Ordinal, ratio, interval B. Nominal, ordinal, ratio C. Interval, nominal, ordinal D. Ratio, interval, nominal - ANSWER B. Nominal, ordinal, ratio Which of the following data would be gathered using dichotomous measurement? A. Education level (High School, Associate's, Bachelor's, Master's) B. Marital Status (Married, Single) C. Temperature in Fahrenheit D. Age in years - ANSWER B. Marital Status (Married, Single) Which of the following statements accurately describes the difference between interval measurement and ratio measurement? A. Ratio measurement uses numeric values without fixed meaning, whereas interval measurement uses numeric values with fixed meaning. B. Ratio measurement is used for continuous data, whereas interval measurement is used for noncontinuous data. C. Interval measurement scales have an arbitrary zero point, whereas ratio measurement scales have an absolute zero point. D. Interval measurement uses numeric values with equal intervals, whereas ratio measurement uses numeric values with unequal intervals. - ANSWER C. Interval measurement scales have an arbitrary zero point, whereas ratio measurement scales have an absolute zero point. In a study examining the level of empathy communicated by participants, which type of measurement would be used if researchers categorized responses into "low," "moderate," and "high" levels of empathy? A. Interval B. Ratio C. Nominal D. Ordinal - ANSWER D. Ordinal Which three attributes are used to determine the reliability of an instrument? A. Equivalence, stability, and internal consistency B. Stability, validity, and accuracy C. Stability, equivalence, and validity D. Validity, accuracy, and internal consistency - ANSWER A. Equivalence, stability, and internal consistency A researcher is planning a quantitative study on blood pressure and will utilize five research assistants to collect data. To ensure best practice, what format will the researcher use to train the research assistants? A. No specific training is required if all assistants know how to take a blood pressure. B. All assistants should receive a detailed email with data collection directions, including pictures. C. All assistants should be trained to take blood pressure readings in a consistent manner using the same instruments. D. All assistants should be trained by local expert healthcare professionals in their own clinical area. - ANSWER C. All assistants should be trained to take blood pressure readings in a consistent manner using the same instruments. Which of the following statements describes internal consistency of an instrument? A. The same scores occur with repeated measures. B. All items on the instrument measure the same concept. C. There is agreement when different forms or different raters use the instrument. D. A strong positive correlation occurs when different versions of a new instrument are used. - ANSWER A. The same scores occur with repeated measures. An instrument that demonstrates reliability also shows validity. A. True B. False - ANSWER B. False An advantage of focus groups is that participants are always comfortable sharing personal information with other people. A. True B. False - ANSWER B. False Qualitative data can be collected in which of the following? A. Biophysiological measures B. In-depth interview C. Scales D. All of the above - ANSWER B. In-depth interview What is the relationship between a population and a sample? A. Both populations and samples are specialized segments of groups. B. A population is a representative sample of a defined group. C. A sample is made up of objects and events, whereas a population is made up of people. D. A sample is a representative group of a defined population. - ANSWER D. A sample is a representative group of a defined population. When a study sample shows representativeness, what can be concluded about the study? A. The study used strict inclusion and exclusion criteria to limit the sample size. B. The study results show evidence of sampling bias. C. The study is most likely generalizable, with results that can be applied to the target population. D. The study is most likely not generalizable because the sample was obtained using specific inclusion - ANSWER C. The study is most likely generalizable, with results that can be applied to the target population. A researcher studying pain associated with complications of Lyme disease wants to make sure that other types of patient pain do not influence the research results. Which action would best address the researcher's concerns? A. Have study participants self-report any other health conditions that cause pain on a regular basis. B. Set criteria to exclude participants with chronic pain disorders from the study. C. Track study participants' use of anti-inflammatory and analgesic medications. D. Set criteria to include only patients who exhibit the most severe and painful symptoms of Lyme disease in the study. - ANSWER B. Set criteria to exclude participants with chronic pain disorders from the study. Which outcome occurs when subjects in a study do not adequately represent the target population? A. Threat to external validity B. Increase in generalizability C. Enhanced internal validity D. Elimination of errors in sampling - ANSWER A. Threat to external validity Which action would the nurse researcher take if there was a concern that participant attrition will result in invalid study results? A. Offer participants at risk of dropping out incentives if they stay in the study. B. Begin the study with a larger sample than necessary. C. Include a section in the consent form where participants agree in advance to complete the entire study. D. Redefine the target population after attrition occurs so that the remaining subjects are still a representative sample. - ANSWER B. Begin the study with a larger sample than necessary. A researcher who divides nursing staff at a hospital into categories of CNAs, LPNs, RNs, and nurse practitioners before randomly selecting participants from each group is using stratified random sampling. A. True B. False - ANSWER A. True Which of the following statements explains why nonprobability sampling carries more risk of selection bias than probability sampling? A. Exclusion criteria are not used in nonprobability sampling. B. Nonprobability sampling uses strata that are not mutually exclusive. C. Representativeness is not a consideration in nonprobability sampling. D. Nonprobability sampling does not use randomization. - ANSWER D. Nonprobability sampling does not use randomization. What is the sampling design of this study? One hundred inmates randomly sampled from a random selection of five federal penitentiaries. A. Cluster sampling B. Convenience sampling C. Systematic Sampling D. Quota Sampling - ANSWER A. Cluster sampling Research Problem - ANSWER An enigmatic, perplexing, or troubling situation Research Question - ANSWER The specific queries the researcher wants to answer in addressing the research problem. Hypothesis - ANSWER The researchers predictions about relationships among variables Purpose statement in Quantitative studies - ANSWER Identifies key study variables. Identifies possible relationships among variables. Indicates the population of interest. Suggests, through use of verbs, the nature of the inquiry. Purpose statement in Qualitative studies - ANSWER Identifies the central phenomenon. Suggests the research tradition. Indicates the group, community, or setting of interest. Suggests, through use of the verbs, the nature of the inquiry. Grounded theory - ANSWER Processing questions. Phenomenology - ANSWER Meaning of questions. Ethnography - ANSWER The scientific description of the customs of individual peoples and cultures 4 central concepts to nursing? - ANSWER Person, environment, health, nursing. Hypotheses are not tested in _________ research. - ANSWER Qualitative Directional Hypothesis - ANSWER Predicts the direction of a relationship, Can be in same or opposite direction. Ex: Children with higher anger scores will have higher BP measurements. Non-Directional Hypothesis - ANSWER Predicts the existence of a relationship, not its direction. Ex: There will be a relationship between age and weight gain. Simple Hypothesis - ANSWER Single independent variable and single dependent variable. Ex: Smoking causes cancer. Complex Hypothesis - ANSWER Multiple indepndent/ dependent variables. Ex: Smoking and other drugs leads to cancer, unemployment, etc. Research Hypothesis - ANSWER States the actual prediction of a relationship. Ex: Older patients are more likely to fall than younger patients Null Hypothesis - ANSWER Expresses the absence of a relationship Ex: Older patients are just as likely as younger patients to fall Hypotheses are never ________ but are instead ________ supported by study data. - ANSWER Proved, supported Steps of Research process - ANSWER Ask a questions Do background research Construct hypothesis Test with experiment Is procedure working? (Yes, No) Theory - ANSWER An abstract generalization that systematically explains relationships among phenomena Descriptive theory - ANSWER Fully describes a phenomenon Grand Theory - ANSWER Describe large ranges of human experience Middle range theory - ANSWER Describes specific phenomena Framework - ANSWER A basic structure underlying a system, concept, or text Theoretical framework - ANSWER Work based on theory Conceptual framework - ANSWER Work based on a conceptual model Roy's Adaptation Model states that... - ANSWER Humans are adaptive and can respond to changes in the environment What is the goal of nursing through Roy's adaptation model? - ANSWER To promote client adaptation and to regulate stimuli affecting adaptation (via nursing intervention). Concepts - ANSWER Mental representations, are typically based on experience Ex: An idea, formed in mind, a thought/ notion; ex germs (germ theory) Who was the first person to receive 2 nobel prizes? - ANSWER Marie Curie Ethics - ANSWER Moral principles that govern a person's or group's behavior Nuremberg Code - ANSWER Formed in 1949 after human experiments were conducted in Nazi Germany. Stated that informed consent is absolutely necessary for human experimentation. Tuskegee Syphilis Study - ANSWER Government study from which investigated effects of untreated syphilis on African American males. Men were lied to and told they were being treated for "bad blood." Willowbrook - ANSWER School for people with intellectual disabilities; Children were deliberately infected with hepatitis. Ethical Dilemmas - ANSWER A situation in which the rights of study participants are in direct conflict with requirements of a study Beneficence - ANSWER To maximize doing good Non-maleficence - ANSWER To minimize doing harm Coercion - ANSWER The practice of persuading someone to do something by using force or threats Anonymity - ANSWER Researcher cannot link participants to data Confidentiality - ANSWER Promise that information will not be made public Justice - ANSWER Right to fair treatment Implied consent - ANSWER For self-administered questionnaires Process consent - ANSWER Renegotiated over time, qualitative studies Groups considered vulnerable - ANSWER Children Mentally/ emotionally disable people Terminally ill people Institutionalized people Pregnant women Purpose of IRB (Institutional Review Board) - ANSWER A committee established to ensure that all human subject research be conducted in accordance with all federal, institutional, and ethical guidelines. Henrietta Lacks - ANSWER Cancer cells taken without her knowledge, became HeLa cell line. Who was the author of the Immortal Life of Henrietta Lacks? - ANSWER Rebecca Skloot Adolescent confidentiality - ANSWER When interviewing an adolescent, if the client states, 'you will tell my parents what I say,' the nurse should respond, 'what you say about feelings is private but some things must be reported to the treatment team for your safety.' Response to unexpected job termination - ANSWER If the nurse is caring for a client who has come to the crisis clinic after an unexpected job termination, the best response by the nurse is, 'let's talk more about the unexpected job termination.' Maslow's hierarchy in nursing assessment - ANSWER When thinking of Maslow, the nurse should assess first the client who has thoughts of suicide. Assessment order for clients - ANSWER When assessing clients, the nurse should assess the client who has vital signs that are not in range just as with a medical client. Erikson's developmental stages - ANSWER Learn Erikson from the book so that if presented with a client, you can pick out intimacy versus isolation or whichever one it is. Assault vs. battery - ANSWER Know the difference between assault and battery by the nurse on a client. Anticonvulsants as mood stabilizers - ANSWER We sometimes use anticonvulsants as mood stabilizers if the client does not have a history of seizures or epilepsy. Validity of advanced directives - ANSWER Advanced directives must be signed in order to be valid. Teenagers and friendships - ANSWER Erikson indicates that teenagers like to spend time with their friends and this is normal. Intimate relationships in early adulthood - ANSWER Establishing intimate relationships occurs during the early adulthood years according to Erikson. Medication discrepancies - ANSWER If a client states that the medication being given is not the same they take at home, the PHCP must be called to discuss that the order is correct. Safety measures in inpatient units - ANSWER In an inpatient mental health unit, if a visitor's bag and purse are searched, that is an acceptable safety measure. Priority during client agitation - ANSWER If a client on the unit becomes agitated, speaking rapidly, belligerent, and pacing, the priority for the nurse is the safety for the client and the other clients on the unit. Malpractice proof requirements - ANSWER In order to prove malpractice, you must prove damages, duty, and cause; technically there are 4 things for malpractice. First generation antipsychotics - ANSWER First generation antipsychotics can cause restlessness and an uncontrollable urge to move; these should be taught to the client. Culturally competent care - ANSWER Culturally competent care includes understanding that the client's pain expressions may be unique based on cultural and religious beliefs. Peplau's Interpersonal theory - ANSWER When thinking about Peplau's Interpersonal theory while caring for mental health clients, the nurse understands that the nurse focuses on what the client can do rather than what the nurse does TO the client. Documentation of client feelings - ANSWER When documenting, you should document the client's expressed subjective feeling. You should not document events before they occur, incident reports, or that the client was noncompliant. Lithium patient education - ANSWER If a client was prescribed lithium, the nurse should teach the client that they must contact the PHCP if they have diarrhea or vomiting. Restraints and client rights - ANSWER If a patient is placed in restraints for bothering other clients, that is a violation of the client's rights. Fidelity in nursing - ANSWER Fidelity is when a nurse makes a promise to the patient to be there for a cigarette break at a certain time and then does something else, that is breaking a promise. Limited English proficiency - ANSWER If a client speaks with limited English proficiency, the translator must be contacted. Mental health record confidentiality - ANSWER Mental health client records cannot be released to anybody just because they ask; the proper documentation must be submitted. PRN Restraints - ANSWER Always question an order if it states that restraints can be PRN. Valproate and AST Levels - ANSWER If a client is taking valproate and the AST aspartate aminotransferase is 55, the PHCP should be called and this reported immediately. MAOI Dietary Restrictions - ANSWER It is important to understand the list of foods that a client cannot have on MAOI medications. Voluntary Status Admission - ANSWER If a client is on a voluntary status admission they can request discharge and not be held. Involuntary Emergency Commitment - ANSWER If a client is on an involuntary emergency commitment due to a family member calling the police due to the client's confused and disruptive behavior- that is for 72 hours or less for observation, diagnosis and treatment. Benzodiazepine Teaching - ANSWER If a client is on a benzodiazepine the nurse should include teaching about not drinking alcohol on the medication, not using with any other pain medications, and not using for a prolonged period of time due to dependence that could occur. 1:1 Supervision - ANSWER If a client is on 1:1 supervision it is within the nurse's scope of practice to remove the right to privacy privileges for that client while on this supervision. Mandated Reporting - ANSWER Nurses are mandated reporters and must report any abuse, especially sexual abuse of a child and call the local child protection agency. Cognitive Distortion - ANSWER Table 2.3- cognitive distortion. Maslow's Hierarchy - ANSWER 28-29- Maslow. Erikson's Stages - ANSWER 32- Erikson- know those stages and examples. Therapeutic Communication - ANSWER 142-143- therapeutic communication. Buspirone - ANSWER Buspirone- Buspar- good for anxiety, not habit forming. Patient Rights - ANSWER 70- rights of patients. Nonverbal Communication Patterns - ANSWER Box 5.3- selected nonverbal communication patterns. Code of Ethics for Nurses - ANSWER 93- Box 6.1 Code of ethics for nurses. Ethical Concepts - ANSWER 93- ethical concepts- autonomy, beneficence, nonmaleficence, justice, fidelity, veracity. Assault/Battery - ANSWER 101- assault/ battery. Malpractice - ANSWER 102- malpractice. Legal and Ethical Knowledge - ANSWER Chapter 6- legal and ethical- you have to know this chapter. Peplau's Phases of Nursing - ANSWER 131- Peplau- Phases of nursing- preorientation, orientation, working, termination. Adolescents seeking admission - ANSWER Those between 16 and 18 may seek admission independently or through an authorized individual. Parent or guardian authority - ANSWER For individuals under 16, a parent, legal guardian, custodian, or next of kin may apply for admission. Forced hospitalization - ANSWER Far less common now due to reactions against abusive practices of the past. Mental illness diagnosis - ANSWER A criterion for involuntary commitment, indicating the individual has a recognized mental health condition. Danger to self or others - ANSWER A criterion for involuntary commitment, indicating the individual poses a risk of harm. Formal Application for Admission - ANSWER Initiated to support involuntary commitment, requiring certification from a specified number of physicians or mental health professionals. Legal Counsel Rights - ANSWER Patients have the right to access legal counsel and take their case before a judge, who may order their release. Involuntary Detention Duration - ANSWER Patients can be kept involuntarily for a state-specified number of days, typically not extending beyond 72 hours without a formal hearing. Habeas Corpus - ANSWER A formal written order used to challenge unlawful detention by the government, allowing patients to petition for their release. Due Process - ANSWER The legal requirement that the government must respect all legal rights owed to a person, which patients can claim if held without just cause. Least Restrictive Alternative Doctrine - ANSWER Mandates that care providers take the least drastic action to achieve a specific purpose, such as treating depression on an outpatient basis instead of hospitalization. Emergency Commitment - ANSWER Also known as temporary admission, it is used for individuals who are confused or ill and need immediate hospitalization. Temporary Admission - ANSWER A type of emergency commitment that can be initiated by anyone in some states, or by care providers in others, requiring confirmation from a psychiatrist. Primary Purpose of Emergency Commitment - ANSWER Observation, diagnosis, and treatment of patients who have mental illness or pose a danger to themselves or others. Temporary Admission Duration - ANSWER Patients can be held for a range of 24 to 96 hours depending on state laws. Discharge Procedures - ANSWER Release from hospitalization depends on the patient's admission status, with voluntarily admitted patients having the right to request release. Conditional Release - ANSWER Allows continued treatment on an outpatient basis for voluntarily admitted patients who need further care. Unconditional Release - ANSWER The termination of the legal patient-institution relationship, commonly occurring after hospitalization. Release by Attending Psychiatrist - ANSWER This release may be ordered by the attending psychiatrist or other advanced practice mental health professional or it may be court ordered. Patient Requested Discharge - ANSWER Patients may wish to be released due to issues such as being unsatisfied with care, lack of insurance coverage, or the need to return to work. 72-Hour Holding Period - ANSWER Nearly every state allows a 72-hour holding period for professional evaluation. Release Against Medical Advice (AMA) - ANSWER Patients may be released against medical advice if there is a disagreement between the mental healthcare providers and the patient regarding the necessity of continued hospitalization. AMA Form - ANSWER Patients are required to sign a form indicating that they are leaving AMA, which becomes part of the patient's permanent record. Ethical Dilemma of AMA - ANSWER An AMA discharge may present an ethical dilemma for clinicians between patient autonomy and beneficence. Evaluation During Conditional Release - ANSWER During a conditional release, the individual is evaluated for follow-through with the medication regimen, ability to meet basic needs, and ability to reintegrate into the community. Involuntary Admission and Conditional Release - ANSWER A voluntarily admitted patient who is conditionally released can only be involuntarily admitted through the usual methods described earlier. Assisted Outpatient Treatment - ANSWER Assisted outpatient treatment is similar to a conditional release but is court-ordered. Legislation for Outpatient Treatment - ANSWER This type of involuntary outpatient commitment arose in the 1990s when states began to pass legislation permitting court-ordered outpatient treatment as an alternative to forced inpatient treatment. States Without Outpatient Treatment Model - ANSWER As of 2019, only three states—Connecticut, Massachusetts, and Maryland—had not adopted the model of less restrictive care. Involuntary Outpatient Care - ANSWER The order for involuntary outpatient care is usually tied to receipt of goods and services provided by social welfare agencies. Treatment Participation Consequences - ANSWER To access goods and services, the patient participates in treatment and may face inpatient admission for failing to participate. Preventive Measure of Outpatient Treatment - ANSWER Assisted outpatient treatment can be a preventive measure to avoid rehospitalization by maintaining treatment. Candidate for Outpatient Treatment - ANSWER Typically, a candidate will have a history of repeated hospitalizations or arrests caused by treatment nonadherence. Threat to Self or Others - ANSWER Individuals thought unlikely to voluntarily participate in outpatient treatment may pose a threat to self or others if they relapse. Patients' Rights Under the Law - ANSWER One of the most fundamental rights of a patient admitted for psychiatric care is the right to quality care. Right to Treatment - ANSWER The right to treatment refers to the obligation to provide care, especially in cases of involuntary commitment. Right to be free from excessive or unnecessary medication - ANSWER Patients have the right to not receive more medication than is necessary for their treatment. Right to privacy and dignity - ANSWER Patients have the right to maintain their privacy and dignity during treatment. Right to the least restrictive environment - ANSWER Patients have the right to receive treatment in an environment that is not more restrictive than necessary. Right to an attorney, clergy, and private care providers - ANSWER Patients have the right to access legal representation, spiritual support, and private healthcare providers. Right to not be subjected to lobotomies, electroconvulsive treatments, and other treatments without fully informed consent - ANSWER Patients cannot be subjected to certain invasive treatments without their informed consent. Metasynthesis - ANSWER a report of a study of a group of single research studies using qualitative methods Meta-analysis - ANSWER quantitative approach to knowledge development that applies statistics to numeric results from different studies that addressed the same research problem to look for combines results that would not happen by chance alone Systematic - ANSWER Addresses a specific clinical question by summarizing multiple research studied along with other evidence-&gt; differs from MS and MA b/c systematic applies statistical procedures to the information collected from individual studies Improvement strategies: resemble research process but are different - ANSWER a. Quality improvement: seeks to find practice related answers b. Process improvement: a management system Linda Aiken - ANSWER PhD, RN, FAAN • There is a direct relationship between nurse staffing and nursing well being • Looked at post-op patients, units with low staffing had an increased rate of death Part of the research process - ANSWER Discussion and conclusions o What is the answer to my question? o What did the study conclude Discussion and Conclusions - ANSWER • Quantitative method vs. qualitative method • Quantitative methods -&gt; Objective -&gt;Assume that there are concrete answers to the questions • Qualitative -&gt;Subjective -&gt;Assume that experiences are unique Discussion section of a research report - ANSWER • Summary: of the key findings • Comparison: debate-possible meanings-&gt; findings w/other studies or to existing theory, speculation and DEBATE about the possible explanations for the results and how they fit w/current knowledge -&gt;Replication is duplication, confirmation and verification • Confirm/ predict (theory-not always) • Speculation The meanings of study results are almost always open to debate! - ANSWER There are different expectations for the content of the discussion section for studies using qualitative versus quantitative methods Goals/expectations - ANSWER Quantitative: -&gt;Generalization: the ability to apply the findings to a broader population • Qualitative -&gt;Conceptualization: the process of creating a picture of an abstract idea Implications for practice - ANSWER • The meaning of the results and how they apply to clinical practice What do we expect to find in the conclusions? - ANSWER • What we know now • Limitations: aspects of a study that create some uncertainty about the meaning or decisions that are derived from the study Conclusion section of the research report - ANSWER • New knowledge • Conceptualization or generalization • Study limitations Limitations (strengths and weaknesses) - ANSWER • What might limit our ability to draw conclusions from the study? o The sample: who was in the study? o Study design: overall plan of the study o Measures used: inconsistent or inaccurate o Methods: timing and procedures Can conclusions differ? - ANSWER YES Conclusions may differ depending on - ANSWER • Researchers familiarity with theory • Perspective taken in discussion • Interpretation Common Errors - ANSWER • Failure to include a major aspect • Presenting a confusing summary or presenting new results (inconsistency) • Over-interpreting the results In summary - ANSWER • Discussion sections include a summary, comparison and speculation • Conclusion sections identify the new knowledge discovered from the study and the limits of that knowledge • Conclusions are open in interpretation and may differ Nurses, as intelligent consumers of research: - ANSWER • Consider the limitations • Keep a questioning and thoughtful perspective as you read the discussion and conclusions • Remember that each individual research study may shed light evidence based practice(EBP): - ANSWER a process used by healthcare professionals to make clinical decisions and to answer clinical questions -research utilization: - ANSWER the use of research in practice; your understanding of research and clinical experience will allow you to be a contributor to a research team -research literacy: - ANSWER you have an understanding of research terms and processes and are able to discern the validity of the research study's findings or EBI -evidence based models: - ANSWER offer a philosophical and practical approach in applying valid research findings to clinical practice in any healthcare field -peer reviewed: - ANSWER an article or journal has been evaluated by other professionals in the same field -abstract: - ANSWER a summary or condensed version of a research report; it takes away from the total picture or information about a research study and gives only limited information on the study itself; helps decide whether or not you should acquire the whole report; helps to decide whether the research addressed the clinical question of interest and whether it studied patients or situations that are similar to your clinical case, so that the research is relevant -systematic review: - ANSWER process of EBP that addresses clinical questions by searching the literature,evaluating evidence, and choosing an intervention—&gt;the product of this process is a systematic review of the research literature regarding a particular clinical question and is considered by many as one of the strongest form of evidence for EBP; gathers reports of research studies that address the problem -conclusions: - ANSWER identify what was found and complete a report by identifying an outcome; they specifically describe or discuss the researcher's final decisions or determinations regarding the research problem; include a description of implications for clinical research; inclusion cautions/limitations -limitations: - ANSWER aspects of how the study was conducted that create uncertainty concerning the conclusion that can be derived from the study as well as the decisions that can be based on it -results: - ANSWER summarizes the specific findings from the study; contains a summary or condensed version of what the authors believe are the most important findings -data: - ANSWER info collected in the study -data analysis: - ANSWER organizing and compiling data; pulls elements or info together to present a clear picture of the info collected, but it does not interpret or describe the implications for practice of that picture of the information -themes: - ANSWER abstractions that reflect phrases, words, or ideas that appear repeatedly when a researcher analyzes what people have said about the particular experience, feeling, or situation; summarizes and synthesizes discrete ideas to create a picture from the words -mean: - ANSWER average for a set of numbers -statistics: - ANSWER language that describes data analysis of information in numbers -descriptive results: - ANSWER summarize information without comparing it with other information -significance: - ANSWER statistical term indicating a low likelihood that any differences or relationships found in the study happened by chance -p-values - ANSWER indicate what percentage of the time the results reported would have happened by chance alone -multivariate: - ANSWER indicates that the study reports findings for three (multi) or more factors (variate) and includes the relationships among those different factors -logistic regression: - ANSWER allows us to look at relationships between more than two factors and test whether these relationships are likely to occur by chance -methods: - ANSWER describes the overall process of how the researchers went about implementing the research study, including who was included in the study, how info was collected, and what interventions was tested -qualitative methods: - ANSWER focus on understanding the complexity of humans within the context of their lives; focus on subjective info and never attempt to predict or control the phenomenon of -quantitative methods: - ANSWER focus on understanding and breaking down the phenomenon into parts to see how they do or do not connect; focus on objective information and can yield predictions and -mixed methods: - ANSWER focuses on both quantitative and qualitative by describing individuals' experiences, feelings, or perceptions and the measurable portions of the variables -sample: - ANSWER smaller group, or subset of a group, of interest that is studied in a research -procedures: - ANSWER specific actions taken by researchers to gather info about the problem being studied -measures: - ANSWER the specific used to assign a number or numbers to an aspect or factor being studied -problem: - ANSWER describes the gap in knowledge that is addressed by the research study -literature review: - ANSWER focused summary of what has already been published regarding the question or problem -theory: - ANSWER description of how several factors may relate to and affect each other -hypothesis - ANSWER a prediction regarding the relationships or effects if selected factors on other -research process: - ANSWER a process with steps, a form of problem solving, complex "puzzle", purpose is to develop knowledge, plans and implements knowledge acquisition, analysis and interpretation concerned with knowing -nursing process: - ANSWER a process with steps, a form of problem solving, complex "puzzle", purpose is to provide scientifically, plans and implements delivery of care, evaluation concerned with outcomes -meta-synthesis: - ANSWER report of a study of a group of single research studies using qualitative methods (from a few studies) -meta-analysis: - ANSWER quantitative approach to knowledge development that applies to statistics to numeric results from different studies that addressed the same research problem to look for combined results that would not happen by chance alone (from several studies) -quality improvement: - ANSWER process of evaluation of healthcare services to see if they meet specific standards or outcomes of care and to identify how they can be improved -quality improvement studies: - ANSWER examine relationships among factors that may affect the outcome or actions of interest -process improvement: - ANSWER management system in which all participants involved strive to improve customer satisfaction -steps of research process: - ANSWER 1.) define and describe a knowledge gap or problem 2.) develop a detailed plan to gather info to address the problem or gap in knowledge 3.) implement the study 4.) analyze and interpret the results of the study 5.)disseminate the findings from the research study -discussion: - ANSWER summarizes, compares, and speculates about the results of the study; first part usually includes a summary that addresses the results that directly relate to the major research question -confirmation: - ANSWER verification of results from other studies -replication: - ANSWER a study that is a duplication of an earlier study; major purpose is confirmation -speculation: - ANSWER process of reflecting on results and offering some explanation for them ; generally considers several alternative explanations for the results and provides a rationale for the author's judgement about which is the best explanation -conceptualization: - ANSWER process of creating a picture of an abstract idea; it is a picture of some aspect of health -generalization: - ANSWER ability to apply a particular study's findings to the broader population represented by the sample -conclusion: - ANSWER the conclusions of a research report describe the knowledge that the researcher believes can be gained from the study -accuracy/consistency: - ANSWER referred to as validity, rigor, and reliability -study design: - ANSWER the overall plan or organization of the study -common errors: - ANSWER failure to include one or more major aspects of a discussion or conclusion, presenting a confusing summary of key findings or presenting new results, and over interpreting the results Right to Refuse Treatment - ANSWER Patients have the right to refuse treatment at any time, even if they are involuntarily committed. Informed consent - ANSWER A legal term meaning the patient has been provided with information regarding risks, benefits, and alternatives to treatment. Implied Consent - ANSWER Consent that is inferred from a patient's actions rather than explicitly stated. Capacity and Competency - ANSWER Refers to a patient's ability to understand and make informed decisions regarding their treatment. Right regarding restraint and seclusion - ANSWER Patients have rights related to the use of restraint and seclusion in treatment settings. Verbal intervention - ANSWER A technique where healthcare providers ask patients for cooperation to avoid the need for restraint. Reducing stimulation - ANSWER A strategy to minimize environmental factors that may escalate a patient's distress. Actively listening - ANSWER A technique used by healthcare providers to understand and address patient concerns. Providing diversion - ANSWER Offering activities or distractions to patients to help manage their behavior. Offering as needed (PRN) medications - ANSWER Providing medications to patients on an as-needed basis rather than on a fixed schedule. Restraint - ANSWER Any mechanical or physical device that prevents or reduces movement of a patient's body. Confidentiality - ANSWER An ethical responsibility of healthcare professionals to keep patient information private. Rights Regarding Confidentiality - ANSWER Patients have the right to keep their treatment information confidential. Waiving confidentiality - ANSWER Only the patient can choose to waive their legal privilege of confidentiality. Intentional Torts - ANSWER Willful acts that violate another person's rights or property, such as assault and battery. Assault - ANSWER An intentional act that causes another person to fear imminent harmful or offensive contact. Battery - ANSWER An intentional act that causes harmful or offensive contact with another person. False imprisonment - ANSWER An intentional tort where a person is confined or restrained against their will. Example of Assault - ANSWER Verbal threats such as "You'll never get out of here" or pretending to hit a patient. Example of Battery - ANSWER Shoving a patient from behind to hurry the patient up. Example of False Imprisonment - ANSWER A charge may be made after a person is placed in restraints or seclusion. Chemical Restraint - ANSWER Medications that result in chemical restraint may fit in the category of false imprisonment. Tardive Dyskinesia - ANSWER A condition that patients on antipsychotic medication should report to the Primary Health Care Provider. Termination Phase - ANSWER The phase of the nurse-client relationship where the nurse explains to the patient where they should go if they have trouble in the future. Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs - ANSWER A psychological theory that includes concepts like safety, love, and belonging. Communication with Hard of Hearing Patients - ANSWER Do not shout; turn the TV volume down, do not stand behind the patient, and speak in a normal voice and rate. Orientation Phase - ANSWER The phase where the nurse should ask the client how they would like to be addressed. Client Opportunities to Reply - ANSWER If you do not give the client opportunities to reply during the interview, they may be discouraged from responding. Establishing Rapport - ANSWER The nurse should continue attempts to establish good rapport with the client, even if the client is newly admitted and angry. Refusal of Medications - ANSWER Clients are allowed to refuse medications, and the nurse should document it as refused and notify the PHCP. Override of Medication Refusal - ANSWER A PHCP can override a client's decision to refuse medication if the client is a danger to self or others. Therapeutic Communication Techniques - ANSWER Include summarizing, which has the nurse review what the client has said. Assessment Finding - ANSWER A reported finding could be that the client is refusing to attend school due to unrealistic safety concerns. Voicing Doubt - ANSWER A therapeutic communication technique used when the nurse doubts the client's perception, such as saying, 'That is hard to believe.' Working Phase - ANSWER The phase during which the nurse should provide education about a condition in the nurse-client relationship. Seating for the nurse-client relationship - ANSWER Keeping space between the client and the nurse free of furniture, placing the chairs at a 90-120 degree angle to decrease interview intensity, having a chair available for the client and a chair for the nurse. Nontherapeutic communication techniques - ANSWER Discouraging comparison. Belmont Report - ANSWER Summarizes ethical principles and guidelines for research involving human subjects. (3 core principles are respect for persons, beneficence, and justice.) Stigma - ANSWER The belief that the overall person is flawed, characterized by social shunning, disgrace, and shame. QSEN - ANSWER Quality and Safety Education for Nurses; involves six competencies that nurses need to know. Patient-centered care - ANSWER Care should be given in an atmosphere of respect and responsiveness, guided by the patient's values, preferences, and needs. Teamwork and collaboration - ANSWER Nurses and interprofessional teams need to maintain open communication, respect, and shared decision making. Evidence-based practice - ANSWER Optimal healthcare is the result of integrating the best current evidence while considering the patient/family values and preferences. Quality improvement - ANSWER Nurses should be involved in monitoring the outcomes of the care they give and test changes that will result in quality improvement. Safety - ANSWER The care provided should not add further injury; harm to patients and providers are minimized through system effectiveness and individual performance. Informatics - ANSWER Information and technology are used to communicate, manage knowledge, mitigate error, and support decision making. Transference - ANSWER Unconscious feelings that the patient has toward a healthcare worker that were originally felt in childhood for a significant other. Countertransference - ANSWER Unconscious feelings that the healthcare worker has toward the patient, which can affect the therapeutic relationship. Peplau - ANSWER The first nurse to identify psychiatric-mental health nursing as an essential element of general nursing and a specialty area. Hierarchy of Needs - ANSWER A psychological theory that prioritizes human needs in a hierarchical order. Erikson's Eight Stages of Development - ANSWER A theory that outlines eight critical stages of human development, each characterized by a specific conflict. Milieu - ANSWER A word of French origin referring to surroundings and physical environment. Primary prevention - ANSWER Aimed at preventing the occurrence of mental illness. Secondary prevention - ANSWER Aimed at preventing the progression of mental illness. Tertiary prevention - ANSWER Aimed at restoring functional ability after mental illness has occurred. Acuteness in treatment options - ANSWER Treatment options are presented in order of acuteness, beginning with those in the least restrictive environment. Therapeutic relationships - ANSWER Relationships that require maintaining self-awareness and seeking supervisory guidance as they progress. Cognitive Distortions - ANSWER Common patterns of negative thinking that can affect mental health. Therapeutic context - ANSWER Refers to the overall environment and interactions within that environment. Voluntary admissions - ANSWER Occur when patients apply in writing for admission to the facility, understanding the need for treatment. Involuntary commitment - ANSWER A court-ordered admission to a facility without the patient's approval, based on legal standards. Autonomy - ANSWER Respecting the rights of others to make their own decisions, such as acknowledging a patient's right to refuse medication. Beneficence - ANSWER The duty to act to benefit or promote the health and well-being of others. Nonmaleficence - ANSWER Doing no harm to the patient, such as protecting confidential information. Justice - ANSWER The duty to distribute resources or care equally, regardless of personal attributes. Fidelity - ANSWER Maintaining loyalty and commitment to the patient and doing no wrong to the patient. Veracity - ANSWER The duty to communicate truthfully, such as describing the purpose and side effects of medications accurately. Criteria for involuntary commitment - ANSWER Includes being diagnosed with mental illness, posing a danger to self or others, being gravely disabled, and needing treatment that prevents voluntary help-seeking. Gravely disabled - ANSWER Unable to provide for basic necessities such as food, clothing, and shelter. Reevaluation - ANSWER May be necessary before a voluntarily admitted patient can be released. Assisted inpatient psychiatric treatment - ANSWER Another term for involuntary commitment, indicating the nature of the treatment. Legal standards for commitment - ANSWER Criteria established by state law to determine whether admission is necessary. Complex system for involuntary commitment - ANSWER Involves someone familiar with the individual believing treatment is necessary, often leading to a call to a provider or police. Individualized interventions - ANSWER Begin on admission to address identified safety needs. Psychiatric-mental health nurses - ANSWER Skillful in evaluating suicide risk through questions and observations. Science Checklist - ANSWER Focuses on the natural world Aims to explain natural world Testable ideas Evidence Involves scientific community Ongoing Benefits from scientific behavior Behaving Scientifically - ANSWER Pay attention to what others have done Expose ideas to testing Assimilate the evidence Openly communicate ideas and test to other Play fair, act with integrity Science in Disguise - ANSWER Intelligent design-&gt; supernatural-&gt; cannot measure this Astrology Science does NOT: - ANSWER Make moral judgments Make aesthetic judgments Tell us how to use scientific knowledge Draw conclusions about supernatural explanations Scientific Method - ANSWER 1. Ask Questions 2. Do background research 3. Construct Hypothesis 4. Test (experiment) 5. Procedure working? Y/N 6. Analyze data and draw conclusion 7. Results align with hypothesis/ results align partially or not at all with hypothesis 8. Communicate results Nursing Science - ANSWER area of knowledge concerned with the adaption of individual in groups to actual or potential health problems-&gt; knowledge about environment that influences health-&gt; knowledge about therapeutic intervention-&gt; promote health In the headlines: Flint Michigan Water Crisis - ANSWER Contaminated waters High lead levels Decreased bone and muscle growth, poor muscle coordination, damage to nervous system, kidneys and hearing What is nursing research? (4 domains of nursing) - ANSWER n 2. environment 3. health (systematic gathering) 4. nursing Essential elements of evidence based on practice: MODEL (AAA-AA-E) - ANSWER -Assess -Ask -Acquire -Appraise -Apply -Evaluate When do you seek evidence? - ANSWER (Assess)- What is an effective clinical q? -Develop clinical q: PICO(T) Population Intervention Comparison Outcome (Time) How have we found a's to q's in the past? How should we find answers for the best clinical practices-find answers to clinical questions - ANSWER acquire What is a research report? - ANSWER Need to be published in peer review journal Primary source-&gt; from researcher Secondary-&gt; person who reads research and writes systematic reviews What is an abstract and where can you find it? - ANSWER Summary- beginning of an article How do you become a critical and intelligent user of research? - ANSWER (appraisal) What is a systematic review? - ANSWER addresses gap in knowledge using a systematic approach-&gt; summarizes other people's research Levels of Evidence: - ANSWER 1. research based evidence -reports of many research studies -individual randomized clinical trials -non-experimental research 2. non-research-based evidence -clinical reports -nurse's experiences -textbooks -opinions, beliefs, untested ideas Who is Roslaind Franklin - ANSWER Studied DNA structure Evidence Based-Practice - ANSWER a. A problem solving approach to clinical practice b. Integrates a systematic search for and critical appraisal of the most relevant evidence to answer a burning clinical question c. Take into account clinical expertise, patient preferences and values Problem a. Newly diagnosed adolescents with diabetes and their lack of knowledge about the disease and treatment b. "How can I help my young diabetic patient feel better?" -&gt; What is the better Q? - ANSWER Better Questions a. "What is the efficacy of individual versus group teaching methods for newly diagnosed adolescent diabetic patients on patient adherence to diabetic regimen?" b. P=adolescent diabetic patients c. I=individual teaching method d. C=group teaching method e. O=patient adherence to regimen f. (T)=newly diagnosed through measurement of treatment adherence Research -Quantitative -Qualitative - ANSWER a. Quantitative (data collected in form of) i. Numbers ii. Statistics b. Qualitative (information about beliefs and experiences) i. Interviews ii. Words iii.Themes (abstractions: reflect phrases, words and ideas) Research report and associated terms - ANSWER a. Introduction: statement of the problem b. Methods c. Results d. Discussion/Conclusions Conclusions - ANSWER a. Limitations b. Implications of practice c. What do conclusions sections entail? i. Outcomes ii. Answer to research question Limitations part of conclusion section - ANSWER i. Limitations are boundaries ii. Questions/example: a limitation of a study may include a disproportionate number of males to females within the study sample iii.Answer: true iv. Inadequate sampling may be considered a limitation of the study if the true population is not included 10. Results a. What do results sections entail? - ANSWER b. The findings c. What points do you need to know about the results sections d. Data analysis i. Themes ii. Descriptive results iii.Multivariate iv. Significance SUMMARIZES the specific information gathered in the research study Statistical Tests - ANSWER a. Significance b. P value (% of time this could have happened by chance alone) &lt; or equal to 5%. This could have happened by chance (significance) (HIGH P VALUE=good stats) Methods: - ANSWER a. The overall process of implication research b. Quantitative c. Qualitative d. Mixed Methods e. Measures f. Samples g. Procedures h. Data The methods section entails - ANSWER a. Sampling b. Data collection procedures c. Data analysis methods What is a sample? - ANSWER Smaller group/subset of interest that is studied in a research study In the methods section of research report- describes how many people were chose, what was done Where is the sample found? - ANSWER -In the methods section of research report- describes how many people were chose, what was done to find them and what if any limits or restrictions were placed on who or which research could be done in the study -Describes how many pts or people declined to be in the study, withdrew What are procedures? - ANSWER a. Specific actions researchers takes to get information b. Qualitative procedures c. Quantitative procedures d. Mixed-methods procedures e. Ex: Post partum depression i. Qualitative (tell me what it is like to be depressed after giving birth) ii. Quantitative (use a depression scale): EPDS scoring f. Question: what type of data collection for quantitative What is data? - ANSWER Information we collect in a study Data Analysis? - ANSWER What we do with data/ to get a better picture of what the data tells us The problem section entails: - ANSWER a. Describes the problem b. Why is it needed c. What methods were used d. Researchers predictions: hypothesis e. Literature review f. Theory (maybe): a written description about how abstract factors may relate to affect one another The problem section entails - A