Fundamentals of Nursing Final Exam Version 3– Practice Questions & Answers
(2025/2026 update) – Latest Questions & Answers| Questions & Answers|
Grade A+| 100% Correct (Verified Solutions)-
Question 1
Which of the following represents the correct sequence of the Nursing Process?
A) Diagnosis, Assessment, Implementation, Planning, Evaluation
B) Assessment, Diagnosis/Analysis, Planning, Implementation, Evaluation
C) Planning, Assessment, Diagnosis, Evaluation, Implementation
D) Evaluation, Implementation, Planning, Diagnosis, Assessment
E) Assessment, Planning, Diagnosis, Implementation, Evaluation
Correct Answer: B) Assessment, Diagnosis/Analysis, Planning, Implementation, Evaluation
Rationale: The nursing process is a systematic, cyclic method of providing care. It begins
with Assessment (data collection), leads to Diagnosis/Analysis (identifying the problem),
moves to Planning (setting goals), follows through with Implementation (carrying out
actions), and concludes with Evaluation (determining if goals were met). Performing these
out of order can lead to inaccurate care or missed patient needs.
Question 2
A nurse is self-aware, honest, persistent, and a curious communicator. These traits are
characteristic of which nursing competency?
A) Technical proficiency
B) Legal compliance
C) Critical thinking
D) Procedural memory
E) Passive observation
Correct Answer: C) Critical thinking
Rationale: Critical thinking in nursing is more than just memorizing facts; it is a
purposeful, mental activity that includes being proactive, self-aware, and an effective
communicator. These traits allow a nurse to analyze complex situations and make clinical
judgments based on evidence rather than intuition alone.
Question 3
A patient states, "My chest feels heavy and I feel anxious." The nurse records this as:
A) Objective data
B) Clinical inference
C) Subjective data
D) Tertiary data
E) Secondary prevention
Correct Answer: C) Subjective data
Rationale: Subjective data consists of information that only the patient can perceive and
, 2
describe, such as feelings, perceptions, or concerns. Since the nurse cannot "measure" the
heaviness or the anxiety directly without the patient's report, it is classified as subjective.
Question 4
Which of the following is an example of objective data?
A) The patient reports feeling dizzy.
B) The patient states their pain is a 5/10.
C) The nurse observes the patient’s blood pressure is 150/90 mmHg.
D) The patient’s spouse says the patient hasn't slept.
E) The patient expresses worry about their surgery.
Correct Answer: C) The nurse observes the patient’s blood pressure is 150/90 mmHg.
Rationale: Objective data is observable and measurable. It can be seen, heard, or felt by
someone other than the person experiencing them. Blood pressure, heart rate, and visible
rashes are all examples of objective data.
Question 5
When calling a provider to report a change in patient status, the nurse uses the SBAR tool. What
does the "B" stand for?
A) Beliefs
B) Baseline
C) Background
D) Behavior
E) Blood pressure
Correct Answer: C) Background
Rationale: SBAR is a standardized communication tool. S = Situation (what is happening
now), B = Background (pertinent medical history/context), A = Assessment (what the nurse
thinks the problem is), and R = Recommendation (what the nurse wants to happen). It
ensures concise and accurate handoffs.
Question 6
Which entity is responsible for defining the legal differences in the scope of practice between a
Registered Nurse (RN) and a Licensed Practical Nurse (LPN)?
A) The Hospital Board of Directors
B) The American Nurses Association (ANA)
C) State Legislation/Nurse Practice Acts
D) The Federal Department of Health
E) The National League for Nursing (NLN)
Correct Answer: C) State Legislation/Nurse Practice Acts
Rationale: Each state has a Nurse Practice Act, which is a set of laws that define the scope of
, 3
practice for various levels of nursing. This ensures that nurses are legally held to the
standards of their specific license within that state’s jurisdiction.
Question 7
The ethical principle of "doing no harm" is known as:
A) Beneficence
B) Justice
C) Autonomy
D) Nonmaleficence
E) Fidelity
Correct Answer: D) Nonmaleficence
Rationale: Nonmaleficence is the fundamental agreement to act in a way that avoids causing
harm to the patient. This includes not only intentional harm but also avoiding risks of
harm through negligence or lack of skill.
Question 8
A nurse ensures a patient understands the risks and benefits of a procedure and allows the patient
to make the final decision. This demonstrates respect for:
A) Nonmaleficence
B) Veracity
C) Autonomy
D) Justice
E) Accountability
Correct Answer: C) Autonomy
Rationale: Autonomy refers to the patient’s right to self-determination. In healthcare, this
means recognizing that patients have the authority to make decisions about their own
bodies and healthcare treatments, provided they are competent to do so.
Question 9
Which of the following is NOT a required element of informed consent?
A) Disclosure of the risks and benefits
B) Comprehension of the information provided
C) Voluntariness of the decision
D) Competence of the patient
E) Guarantee of a successful outcome
Correct Answer: E) Guarantee of a successful outcome
Rationale: Informed consent requires disclosure (the facts), comprehension (the patient
understands), competence (the patient is mentally able), and voluntariness (no coercion).
No medical procedure can legally or ethically guarantee a specific outcome.
, 4
Question 10
The primary goal of "Primary Prevention" is to:
A) Treat an existing disease
B) Prevent disease or injury before it ever occurs
C) Provide rehabilitation after a stroke
D) Screen for early stages of cancer
E) Manage chronic pain
Correct Answer: B) Prevent disease or injury before it ever occurs
Rationale: Primary prevention focuses on health promotion and protection against specific
diseases. It aims to reduce the incidence of disease by intervening before the pathological
process begins.
Question 11
Which of the following is an example of primary prevention?
A) Providing a blood pressure screening at a health fair
B) Administering a flu vaccine to a healthy adult
C) Teaching a patient how to use an inhaler for chronic asthma
D) Sending a patient to cardiac rehabilitation
E) Performing a mammogram
Correct Answer: B) Administering a flu vaccine to a healthy adult
Rationale: Immunizations are a classic example of primary prevention because they protect
the individual from contracting a disease. Screenings (Option A and E) are secondary, and
rehab/medication management (Option C and D) are tertiary.
Question 12
The nurse is organizing a community blood pressure screening. This is an example of:
A) Primary prevention
B) Secondary prevention
C) Tertiary prevention
D) Health restoration
E) Palliative care
Correct Answer: B) Secondary prevention
Rationale: Secondary prevention focuses on early detection and prompt intervention.
Screenings do not prevent a condition; they identify it in its early, often asymptomatic
stages so that treatment can begin early to prevent complications.
Question 13
A patient attending a support group for survivors of a stroke is participating in:
A) Primary prevention
(2025/2026 update) – Latest Questions & Answers| Questions & Answers|
Grade A+| 100% Correct (Verified Solutions)-
Question 1
Which of the following represents the correct sequence of the Nursing Process?
A) Diagnosis, Assessment, Implementation, Planning, Evaluation
B) Assessment, Diagnosis/Analysis, Planning, Implementation, Evaluation
C) Planning, Assessment, Diagnosis, Evaluation, Implementation
D) Evaluation, Implementation, Planning, Diagnosis, Assessment
E) Assessment, Planning, Diagnosis, Implementation, Evaluation
Correct Answer: B) Assessment, Diagnosis/Analysis, Planning, Implementation, Evaluation
Rationale: The nursing process is a systematic, cyclic method of providing care. It begins
with Assessment (data collection), leads to Diagnosis/Analysis (identifying the problem),
moves to Planning (setting goals), follows through with Implementation (carrying out
actions), and concludes with Evaluation (determining if goals were met). Performing these
out of order can lead to inaccurate care or missed patient needs.
Question 2
A nurse is self-aware, honest, persistent, and a curious communicator. These traits are
characteristic of which nursing competency?
A) Technical proficiency
B) Legal compliance
C) Critical thinking
D) Procedural memory
E) Passive observation
Correct Answer: C) Critical thinking
Rationale: Critical thinking in nursing is more than just memorizing facts; it is a
purposeful, mental activity that includes being proactive, self-aware, and an effective
communicator. These traits allow a nurse to analyze complex situations and make clinical
judgments based on evidence rather than intuition alone.
Question 3
A patient states, "My chest feels heavy and I feel anxious." The nurse records this as:
A) Objective data
B) Clinical inference
C) Subjective data
D) Tertiary data
E) Secondary prevention
Correct Answer: C) Subjective data
Rationale: Subjective data consists of information that only the patient can perceive and
, 2
describe, such as feelings, perceptions, or concerns. Since the nurse cannot "measure" the
heaviness or the anxiety directly without the patient's report, it is classified as subjective.
Question 4
Which of the following is an example of objective data?
A) The patient reports feeling dizzy.
B) The patient states their pain is a 5/10.
C) The nurse observes the patient’s blood pressure is 150/90 mmHg.
D) The patient’s spouse says the patient hasn't slept.
E) The patient expresses worry about their surgery.
Correct Answer: C) The nurse observes the patient’s blood pressure is 150/90 mmHg.
Rationale: Objective data is observable and measurable. It can be seen, heard, or felt by
someone other than the person experiencing them. Blood pressure, heart rate, and visible
rashes are all examples of objective data.
Question 5
When calling a provider to report a change in patient status, the nurse uses the SBAR tool. What
does the "B" stand for?
A) Beliefs
B) Baseline
C) Background
D) Behavior
E) Blood pressure
Correct Answer: C) Background
Rationale: SBAR is a standardized communication tool. S = Situation (what is happening
now), B = Background (pertinent medical history/context), A = Assessment (what the nurse
thinks the problem is), and R = Recommendation (what the nurse wants to happen). It
ensures concise and accurate handoffs.
Question 6
Which entity is responsible for defining the legal differences in the scope of practice between a
Registered Nurse (RN) and a Licensed Practical Nurse (LPN)?
A) The Hospital Board of Directors
B) The American Nurses Association (ANA)
C) State Legislation/Nurse Practice Acts
D) The Federal Department of Health
E) The National League for Nursing (NLN)
Correct Answer: C) State Legislation/Nurse Practice Acts
Rationale: Each state has a Nurse Practice Act, which is a set of laws that define the scope of
, 3
practice for various levels of nursing. This ensures that nurses are legally held to the
standards of their specific license within that state’s jurisdiction.
Question 7
The ethical principle of "doing no harm" is known as:
A) Beneficence
B) Justice
C) Autonomy
D) Nonmaleficence
E) Fidelity
Correct Answer: D) Nonmaleficence
Rationale: Nonmaleficence is the fundamental agreement to act in a way that avoids causing
harm to the patient. This includes not only intentional harm but also avoiding risks of
harm through negligence or lack of skill.
Question 8
A nurse ensures a patient understands the risks and benefits of a procedure and allows the patient
to make the final decision. This demonstrates respect for:
A) Nonmaleficence
B) Veracity
C) Autonomy
D) Justice
E) Accountability
Correct Answer: C) Autonomy
Rationale: Autonomy refers to the patient’s right to self-determination. In healthcare, this
means recognizing that patients have the authority to make decisions about their own
bodies and healthcare treatments, provided they are competent to do so.
Question 9
Which of the following is NOT a required element of informed consent?
A) Disclosure of the risks and benefits
B) Comprehension of the information provided
C) Voluntariness of the decision
D) Competence of the patient
E) Guarantee of a successful outcome
Correct Answer: E) Guarantee of a successful outcome
Rationale: Informed consent requires disclosure (the facts), comprehension (the patient
understands), competence (the patient is mentally able), and voluntariness (no coercion).
No medical procedure can legally or ethically guarantee a specific outcome.
, 4
Question 10
The primary goal of "Primary Prevention" is to:
A) Treat an existing disease
B) Prevent disease or injury before it ever occurs
C) Provide rehabilitation after a stroke
D) Screen for early stages of cancer
E) Manage chronic pain
Correct Answer: B) Prevent disease or injury before it ever occurs
Rationale: Primary prevention focuses on health promotion and protection against specific
diseases. It aims to reduce the incidence of disease by intervening before the pathological
process begins.
Question 11
Which of the following is an example of primary prevention?
A) Providing a blood pressure screening at a health fair
B) Administering a flu vaccine to a healthy adult
C) Teaching a patient how to use an inhaler for chronic asthma
D) Sending a patient to cardiac rehabilitation
E) Performing a mammogram
Correct Answer: B) Administering a flu vaccine to a healthy adult
Rationale: Immunizations are a classic example of primary prevention because they protect
the individual from contracting a disease. Screenings (Option A and E) are secondary, and
rehab/medication management (Option C and D) are tertiary.
Question 12
The nurse is organizing a community blood pressure screening. This is an example of:
A) Primary prevention
B) Secondary prevention
C) Tertiary prevention
D) Health restoration
E) Palliative care
Correct Answer: B) Secondary prevention
Rationale: Secondary prevention focuses on early detection and prompt intervention.
Screenings do not prevent a condition; they identify it in its early, often asymptomatic
stages so that treatment can begin early to prevent complications.
Question 13
A patient attending a support group for survivors of a stroke is participating in:
A) Primary prevention
