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RN Pharmacology A Relias (NEW UPDATED VERSION) LATEST ACTUAL EXAM
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS (VERIFIED QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS)-
GUARANTEED PASS A+
RN Pharmacology A – Practice Questions
1-10 Cardiovascular Drugs
1. Which of the following is a calcium channel blocker?
A) Lisinopril
B) Amlodipine
C) Metoprolol
D) Furosemide
Answer: B
Rationale: Amlodipine relaxes vascular smooth muscle by blocking calcium channels.
2. A patient on metoprolol should monitor:
A) Blood glucose
B) Heart rate
C) Sodium levels
D) Oxygen saturation
Answer: B
Rationale: Beta-blockers can cause bradycardia; monitor pulse and hold if <60 bpm.
3. Spironolactone is classified as:
A) Loop diuretic
B) Thiazide diuretic
C) Potassium-sparing diuretic
D) Osmotic diuretic
Answer: C
Rationale: Spironolactone retains potassium while promoting sodium excretion.
4. A patient taking furosemide should monitor for:
A) Hyperkalemia
B) Hypokalemia
C) Bradycardia
D) Hypernatremia
Answer: B
Rationale: Loop diuretics increase potassium excretion.
5. Lisinopril can cause which adverse effect?
A) Dry cough
B) Bradycardia
C) Constipation
D) Tremors
Answer: A
Rationale: ACE inhibitors increase bradykinin, leading to a persistent dry cough.
6. Nitroglycerin tablets should be stored:
A) In a cool, dark place
B) In the refrigerator
2026 2027 GRADED A+
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C) Near a heat source
D) In water
Answer: A
Rationale: Nitroglycerin is light and heat-sensitive.
7. Patient teaching for digoxin includes:
A) Skip dose if feeling well
B) Check apical pulse before administration
C) Avoid monitoring potassium
D) Take with grapefruit juice
Answer: B
Rationale: Digoxin slows heart rate; hold if pulse <60 bpm.
8. Amlodipine can cause:
A) Hypotension
B) Hyperglycemia
C) Hyperkalemia
D) Diarrhea only
Answer: A
Rationale: Calcium channel blockers can lower blood pressure.
9. Beta-blockers are contraindicated in patients with:
A) Asthma
B) Hypertension
C) Heart failure
D) Angina
Answer: A
Rationale: Nonselective beta-blockers can exacerbate bronchospasm.
10. A patient taking hydrochlorothiazide should:
A) Increase potassium-rich foods
B) Avoid fluids
C) Reduce fiber intake
D) Take with milk only
Answer: A
Rationale: Thiazide diuretics may cause hypokalemia.
11–20: Respiratory Drugs
11. Albuterol is primarily used for:
A) Chronic bronchitis only
B) Acute asthma relief
C) COPD prevention
D) Allergic rhinitis
Answer: B
Rationale: Albuterol is a short-acting beta-2 agonist for acute bronchospasm.
12. Common side effects of albuterol include:
A) Tremors, tachycardia
B) Bradycardia
2026 2027 GRADED A+
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C) Constipation
D) Edema
Answer: A
Rationale: Beta-2 stimulation can cause these effects.
13. Ipratropium is classified as:
A) Beta-2 agonist
B) Anticholinergic
C) Corticosteroid
D) Leukotriene inhibitor
Answer: B
Rationale: Ipratropium blocks muscarinic receptors to relax bronchial muscles.
14. Montelukast is indicated for:
A) Acute asthma attacks
B) Long-term asthma prophylaxis
C) COPD exacerbation only
D) Bacterial infection
Answer: B
Rationale: Montelukast prevents chronic asthma symptoms.
15. Inhaled corticosteroids require:
A) Rinsing mouth after use
B) Taking only when symptomatic
C) Avoiding bronchodilators
D) Combining with NSAIDs
Answer: A
Rationale: Prevents oral candidiasis and irritation.
16. Theophylline toxicity may present with:
A) Tachycardia, nausea, CNS excitation
B) Bradycardia
C) Hypotension
D) Constipation
Answer: A
Rationale: Narrow therapeutic window requires monitoring serum levels.
17. Oxygen therapy requires monitoring:
A) Pulse oximetry
B) Glucose
C) Sodium
D) Temperature
Answer: A
Rationale: Ensures adequate oxygen saturation.
18. Albuterol should be used:
A) Before corticosteroid inhalers
B) After meals only
C) Only once daily
D) With antacids
Answer: A
Rationale: Opens airways for better steroid delivery.
2026 2027 GRADED A+
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19. Long-term corticosteroid use may cause:
A) Osteoporosis
B) Bradycardia
C) Hypoglycemia
D) Diarrhea
Answer: A
Rationale: Chronic steroid use reduces bone density.
20. Patient teaching for inhalers includes:
A) Shake inhaler before use
B) Hold breath after inhalation
C) Rinse mouth if steroid
D) All of the above
Answer: D
Rationale: Ensures proper administration and reduces side effects.
21–30: Antibiotics
21. Penicillin is effective against:
A) Bacteria
B) Viruses
C) Fungi
D) Parasites
Answer: A
Rationale: Inhibits bacterial cell wall synthesis.
22. Adverse effects of antibiotics include:
A) GI upset, rash, hypersensitivity
B) Hypotension
C) Bradycardia only
D) Hair loss
Answer: A
Rationale: GI upset and allergies are common.
23. Cephalosporins may cross-react in patients allergic to:
A) Penicillin
B) Macrolides
C) Tetracyclines
D) Fluoroquinolones
Answer: A
Rationale: Cross-sensitivity risk exists.
24. Aminoglycosides (e.g., gentamicin) require monitoring:
A) Liver function
B) Peak/trough levels
C) BP
D) Blood sugar
Answer: B
Rationale: Nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity require level monitoring.
2026 2027 GRADED A+
RN Pharmacology A Relias (NEW UPDATED VERSION) LATEST ACTUAL EXAM
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS (VERIFIED QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS)-
GUARANTEED PASS A+
RN Pharmacology A – Practice Questions
1-10 Cardiovascular Drugs
1. Which of the following is a calcium channel blocker?
A) Lisinopril
B) Amlodipine
C) Metoprolol
D) Furosemide
Answer: B
Rationale: Amlodipine relaxes vascular smooth muscle by blocking calcium channels.
2. A patient on metoprolol should monitor:
A) Blood glucose
B) Heart rate
C) Sodium levels
D) Oxygen saturation
Answer: B
Rationale: Beta-blockers can cause bradycardia; monitor pulse and hold if <60 bpm.
3. Spironolactone is classified as:
A) Loop diuretic
B) Thiazide diuretic
C) Potassium-sparing diuretic
D) Osmotic diuretic
Answer: C
Rationale: Spironolactone retains potassium while promoting sodium excretion.
4. A patient taking furosemide should monitor for:
A) Hyperkalemia
B) Hypokalemia
C) Bradycardia
D) Hypernatremia
Answer: B
Rationale: Loop diuretics increase potassium excretion.
5. Lisinopril can cause which adverse effect?
A) Dry cough
B) Bradycardia
C) Constipation
D) Tremors
Answer: A
Rationale: ACE inhibitors increase bradykinin, leading to a persistent dry cough.
6. Nitroglycerin tablets should be stored:
A) In a cool, dark place
B) In the refrigerator
2026 2027 GRADED A+
,2|Page
C) Near a heat source
D) In water
Answer: A
Rationale: Nitroglycerin is light and heat-sensitive.
7. Patient teaching for digoxin includes:
A) Skip dose if feeling well
B) Check apical pulse before administration
C) Avoid monitoring potassium
D) Take with grapefruit juice
Answer: B
Rationale: Digoxin slows heart rate; hold if pulse <60 bpm.
8. Amlodipine can cause:
A) Hypotension
B) Hyperglycemia
C) Hyperkalemia
D) Diarrhea only
Answer: A
Rationale: Calcium channel blockers can lower blood pressure.
9. Beta-blockers are contraindicated in patients with:
A) Asthma
B) Hypertension
C) Heart failure
D) Angina
Answer: A
Rationale: Nonselective beta-blockers can exacerbate bronchospasm.
10. A patient taking hydrochlorothiazide should:
A) Increase potassium-rich foods
B) Avoid fluids
C) Reduce fiber intake
D) Take with milk only
Answer: A
Rationale: Thiazide diuretics may cause hypokalemia.
11–20: Respiratory Drugs
11. Albuterol is primarily used for:
A) Chronic bronchitis only
B) Acute asthma relief
C) COPD prevention
D) Allergic rhinitis
Answer: B
Rationale: Albuterol is a short-acting beta-2 agonist for acute bronchospasm.
12. Common side effects of albuterol include:
A) Tremors, tachycardia
B) Bradycardia
2026 2027 GRADED A+
,3|Page
C) Constipation
D) Edema
Answer: A
Rationale: Beta-2 stimulation can cause these effects.
13. Ipratropium is classified as:
A) Beta-2 agonist
B) Anticholinergic
C) Corticosteroid
D) Leukotriene inhibitor
Answer: B
Rationale: Ipratropium blocks muscarinic receptors to relax bronchial muscles.
14. Montelukast is indicated for:
A) Acute asthma attacks
B) Long-term asthma prophylaxis
C) COPD exacerbation only
D) Bacterial infection
Answer: B
Rationale: Montelukast prevents chronic asthma symptoms.
15. Inhaled corticosteroids require:
A) Rinsing mouth after use
B) Taking only when symptomatic
C) Avoiding bronchodilators
D) Combining with NSAIDs
Answer: A
Rationale: Prevents oral candidiasis and irritation.
16. Theophylline toxicity may present with:
A) Tachycardia, nausea, CNS excitation
B) Bradycardia
C) Hypotension
D) Constipation
Answer: A
Rationale: Narrow therapeutic window requires monitoring serum levels.
17. Oxygen therapy requires monitoring:
A) Pulse oximetry
B) Glucose
C) Sodium
D) Temperature
Answer: A
Rationale: Ensures adequate oxygen saturation.
18. Albuterol should be used:
A) Before corticosteroid inhalers
B) After meals only
C) Only once daily
D) With antacids
Answer: A
Rationale: Opens airways for better steroid delivery.
2026 2027 GRADED A+
, 4|Page
19. Long-term corticosteroid use may cause:
A) Osteoporosis
B) Bradycardia
C) Hypoglycemia
D) Diarrhea
Answer: A
Rationale: Chronic steroid use reduces bone density.
20. Patient teaching for inhalers includes:
A) Shake inhaler before use
B) Hold breath after inhalation
C) Rinse mouth if steroid
D) All of the above
Answer: D
Rationale: Ensures proper administration and reduces side effects.
21–30: Antibiotics
21. Penicillin is effective against:
A) Bacteria
B) Viruses
C) Fungi
D) Parasites
Answer: A
Rationale: Inhibits bacterial cell wall synthesis.
22. Adverse effects of antibiotics include:
A) GI upset, rash, hypersensitivity
B) Hypotension
C) Bradycardia only
D) Hair loss
Answer: A
Rationale: GI upset and allergies are common.
23. Cephalosporins may cross-react in patients allergic to:
A) Penicillin
B) Macrolides
C) Tetracyclines
D) Fluoroquinolones
Answer: A
Rationale: Cross-sensitivity risk exists.
24. Aminoglycosides (e.g., gentamicin) require monitoring:
A) Liver function
B) Peak/trough levels
C) BP
D) Blood sugar
Answer: B
Rationale: Nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity require level monitoring.
2026 2027 GRADED A+
