Medical Science & Cardiovascular Test Bank 2026: Practice Questions for Students

A patient is experiencing impaired circulation secondary to increased systemic arterial pressure. Which of the following statements is the most relevant phenomenon? A. Low preload B. High afterload because of back pressure against the left ventricle C. Decreased contractility D. Hypovolemia Rationale: High systemic arterial pressure increases afterload, which is the resistance the left ventricle must overcome to eject blood. The other options do not directly relate to back pressure in systemic arteries. In the ICU, a patient develops ventricular tachycardia. The nurse will likely assess for: A. Improved cardiac output B. Normal heart sounds C. Stable blood pressure D. Decreasing cardiac output due to less ventricular filling time Rationale: Rapid ventricular rates reduce filling time, decreasing cardiac output. Other options are inconsistent with VT effects. A nurse measures blood pressure manually. Which principle underlies auscultation? A. Blood flow velocity is inaudible B. Capillary refill time C. Pulse oximetry readings D. Pressure pulsation that exceeds the velocity of blood flow is audible and coincides with systolic BP Rationale: Korotkoff sounds result from turbulent blood flow during systolic pressure; other options do not explain audible sounds. A patient had a massive MI due to left circumflex occlusion. Nurse explains why extensive muscle damage occurred: A. Collateral arteries prevented damage B. Minor vessels restored flow C. Vasodilation compensated D. If a major artery like the circumflex is occluded, the smaller vessels supplied by that vessel cannot restore blood flow Rationale: Occlusion of a major vessel cuts off perfusion to its branches; other options are incorrect mechanisms. Minimal muscle damage after 99% LAD occlusion is due to: A. High cholesterol levels B. Hypertension C. Development of collateral circulation that builds channels between smaller arteries gradually D. Vasospasm Rationale: Gradual narrowing allows formation of collateral vessels that protect myocardium. Which individual is most likely experiencing vasodilation? A. Patient on beta-blocker B. Patient taking calcium C. Patient with hypotension D. A 51-year-old man taking a medication that blocks the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system Rationale: RAAS blockers inhibit angiotensin II, a vasoconstrictor, inducing vasodilation. Glomerular capillaries in the kidney allow filtration because they have: A. Large pores for proteins B. Thick endothelial walls C. No filtration ability D. Small openings that allow large amounts of smaller molecular substances to filter through the glomeruli Rationale: Fenestrated capillaries allow efficient filtration of small solutes; other options are inaccurate. A patient with liver disease, low albumin, and ascites likely has: A. Dehydration B. Hypertension C. Insufficient albumin causing insufficient absorption of fluid into capillaries D. Hyperlipidemia Rationale: Low plasma proteins reduce oncotic pressure, leading to fluid accumulation. Excess endothelins in blood due to viral inflammation can result in: A. Vessel dilation B. Hypotension C. Bradycardia D. Contraction of the underlying smooth muscles within the vessels Rationale: Endothelins are potent vasoconstrictors; other options are unrelated. Which neurotransmitter causes contraction of vascular smooth muscle cells? A. Acetylcholine B. Dopamine C. Serotonin D. Norepinephrine Rationale: Norepinephrine activates alpha receptors causing vasoconstriction; other neurotransmitters are less relevant. A patient starting a statin should know: A. LDL is beneficial B. HDL is harmful C. Triglycerides are not relevant D. HDL cholesterol is often characterized as beneficial to health Rationale: HDL transports cholesterol to the liver for excretion; LDL is harmful. A patient with hepatitis C and liver failure may have elevated LDL because: A. Kidneys are failing B. Exercise deficiency C. Impaired lipoprotein synthesis in liver D. Low HDL Rationale: The liver synthesizes lipoproteins; liver disease impairs LDL metabolism. A patient with hemorrhagic stroke may have: A. High LDL B. Normal cholesterol levels C. High triglycerides D. Low HDL Rationale: Secondary hypercholesterolemia is often associated with metabolic disease, not hemorrhagic stroke. Patients with high inherited cholesterol risk should: A. Ignore lifestyle B. Take no action C. Integrate lifestyle modifications to compensate for high risk D. Rely only on medication Rationale: Lifestyle changes can reduce cardiovascular risk even with genetic predisposition. Patient with elevated LDL and triglycerides will likely receive: A. Aspirin B. Beta-blocker C. Zocor (simvastatin), an HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor D. Diuretic Rationale: Statins reduce hepatic cholesterol synthesis; other drugs do not target LDL effectively. Patient with elevated CRP asks its meaning: A. Infection only B. Allergy marker C. Cholesterol test D. Marker for systemic inflammation associated with vascular disease Rationale: CRP is an acute-phase protein indicating inflammation; other options misinterpret its purpose. A patient reads that smoking permanently increases heart disease risk. Corrected statement: A. Continue smoking B. Quit only if possible C. Cessation reduces risk; quitting is always beneficial D. Smoke occasionally Rationale: Risk decreases after cessation; smoking is not irreversible. Free radicals in atherosclerosis are important because: A. They repair endothelium B. Cause vasodilation C. Oxidize LDL, damaging blood vessels D. Increase HDL Rationale: Oxidized LDL contributes to plaque formation; other options are inaccurate. Severe atherosclerosis can manifest as: A. Hypertension only B. Bradycardia C. Aneurysm formation due to weakened vessel walls D. Hyperlipidemia Rationale: Plaque weakens vessels, increasing risk of aneurysm; other options are less directly linked. A patient with cold, numb leg, absent pulses, and sharp line of paresthesia indicates: A. Venous thrombosis B. Neuropathy C. Chronic ischemia D. Acute arterial occlusion requiring immediate intervention Rationale: Sudden arterial blockage is a medical emergency; other options are slower or less acute. A 70-year-old with calf pain, faint pulses, and reddened leg is likely experiencing: A. Deep vein thrombosis B. Peripheral neuropathy C. Atherosclerotic occlusive disease requiring thrombolytic therapy D. Cellulitis Rationale: Intermittent claudication and diminished pulses indicate arterial occlusion; cellulitis does not impair pulses. A patient with primary Raynaud disease should be advised: A. Surgery only B. Ignore symptoms C. Keep warm and may use circulation-enhancing pills D. Avoid exercise Rationale: Non-invasive management includes warmth and vasodilators; other options are extreme or ineffective. Aneurysm education highlights: A. Genetics only B. Hyperlipidemia only C. Hypertension as a modifiable contributor D. Infection only Rationale: Hypertension stresses vessel walls; controlling it reduces risk. Which patient is most likely suspected of AAA? A. 30-year-old female with headache B. 50-year-old with MI C. 66-year-old with facial edema, cough, and neck vein distention D. Child with fever Rationale: Older age with vascular symptoms raises suspicion; other options are unrelated. A woman with varicose veins should be educated that: A. Surgery reverses veins B. Compression is unnecessary C. Little can be done to reverse varicose veins; focus on prevention D. Lifestyle has no impact Rationale: Treatment slows progression; veins rarely return to normal. An elderly patient with non-healing leg ulcer and thin, bluish-brown skin should be treated with: A. Surgery B. Antibiotics only C. Compression therapy to facilitate venous return D. Topical steroids Rationale: Venous ulcers benefit from compression; other treatments do not address venous insufficiency. Virchow triad component unrelated to venous thrombosis in a 50-year-old: A. Endothelial injury B. Hypercoagulability C. Venous stasis D. Decreased cardiac output and EF of 30% Rationale: Virchow triad focuses on stasis, hypercoagulability, and endothelial injury; low EF is not a primary component. A 74-year-old with BP 148/97 and pulse pressure 51 mmHg: major determinant of pulse pressure is: A. Heart rate B. Stroke volume from LV ejection C. Peripheral resistance only D. Blood viscosity Rationale: Pulse pressure is primarily determined by stroke volume; other factors have less influence. Critically ill client with MAP below normal is at risk for: A. Hypertension B. Stroke only C. Organ damage and hypovolemic shock D. Fever Rationale: Low MAP reduces perfusion, risking shock and organ failure; other options are unrelated. A patient is experiencing increased afterload due to high systemic arterial pressure. Which statement is correct? A. It reduces the workload on the left ventricle It increases resistance against the left ventricle, making the heart work harder It decreases arterial pressure It improves cardiac output Rationale: Increased afterload means the ventricle must overcome higher resistance to eject blood. The other options are inaccurate effects of high afterload. A patient with ventricular tachycardia may present with: A. Stable hemodynamics B. Increased filling time C. Normal perfusion D. Decreased cardiac output due to less ventricular filling time Rationale: VT reduces ventricular filling and stroke volume; other choices do not reflect hemodynamic consequences. Manual blood pressure measurement depends on: A. Turbulence exceeding blood velocity creating audible sounds B. Palpation only C. Visual inspection D. Pressure pulsation that exceeds the velocity of blood flow is audible and coincides with systolic BP Rationale: Korotkoff sounds are due to turbulent flow at systolic pressure. Other options are unrelated to auscultation. Following left circumflex artery MI, why is there extensive damage? A. Collateral arteries restored flow B. Smaller vessels supplied by the blocked artery cannot restore blood flow C. Vasodilation compensated D. Minor vessels sufficed Rationale: Occlusion of a major artery prevents adequate perfusion to its branches; other options misrepresent pathophysiology. Development of collateral circulation after gradual LAD narrowing helps because: A. It increases heart rate B. It builds alternative channels to maintain perfusion C. It reduces blood pressure D. It eliminates the need for medications Rationale: Gradual occlusion allows small vessels to enlarge and bypass blocked arteries. A 51-year-old man on RAAS blockers is most likely experiencing: A. Vasoconstriction Vasodilation Arrhythmias Hypertension Rationale: RAAS inhibitors block angiotensin II, causing relaxation of blood vessels. Kidney glomerular capillaries are specialized because they: A. Prevent filtration of small molecules B. Have fenestrations allowing filtration of small molecules C. Filter proteins only D. Do not filter plasma Rationale: Fenestrated capillaries allow selective filtration; other options are physiologically incorrect. Patient with liver disease and low albumin develops ascites because: A. High plasma proteins draw fluid out B. Insufficient albumin reduces plasma oncotic pressure, causing fluid accumulation C. Sodium intake is low D. Increased albumin causes edema Rationale: Low albumin impairs fluid reabsorption into capillaries; other options misidentify cause. Excess endothelins in vascular inflammation lead to: A. Vasodilation B. Bradycardia C. Contraction of vascular smooth muscle D. Decreased blood pressure Rationale: Endothelins are potent vasoconstrictors; other options do not align with their physiological action. Norepinephrine acts on vascular smooth muscle to: A. Relax vessels B. Induce contraction, decreasing vessel radius C. Block angiotensin D. Dilate capillaries Rationale: NE activates alpha-adrenergic receptors causing vasoconstriction; other neurotransmitters do not produce the same effect.